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QUESTION 1
You manage a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) site. You plan to create two collections named Collection1 and Collection2 that have dynamic membership rules. Collection1 will contain all of the servers in the domain. Collection2 will contain only the domain controllers.
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You have a Configuration Manager query that you will use as the basis for creating the collection. The query has the following WQL statement.
You need to complete the statement that will be used for each collection. Which class and attribute should you add in the where clause for each collection? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Hot Area:
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QUESTION 2
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence contains steps to install software updates and Applications. The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six months. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image. What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Configuration Manager 2012: Offline Servicing for Operat

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment that contains six servers configured as shown in the following table:
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Server5 and Server6 are in the perimeter network, while Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 are in the internal network.
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Administrators currently apply software updates to servers manually. You discover that Server4 was never updated. You need to centrally manage software updates for all of the servers by using Configuration Manager. What should you do first?
A. Install a management point on Server5.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTPS on Server6.
C. Install a management point on Server2.
D. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server3.
E. Install an enrollment proxy point on Server6.
F. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
G. Configure the Exchange connector on Server3.
H. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
I. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server5.
J. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server3.
K. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
L. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
M. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
N. Install a protected distribution point on Server1.
O. Install a software update point on Server3.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: M
Explanation/Reference:
A WSUS service will simplify and automate software updates for all servers from a single management interface. Note: The software update point is required on the central administration site a

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You write the following query:
Select SYS.Name from SMS_R_System SYS
Join SMS_G_System_ADD_REMOVE_PROGRAMS ARP
On ARP.ResourceId = SYS.ResourceId
You need to create a list of all the client computers that have a version of Visual Studio installed. What should you add to the query?
A. where ARP.DisplayName like andquot;Visual Studio*andquot;
B. where ARP.DisplayName = andquot;*Visual Studio*andquot;
C. where ARP.DisplayName = andquot;%%Visual Studioandquot;
D. where ARP.DisplayName like andquot;Visual studio%andquot;
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You need to use andquot;LIKEandquot; not andquot;=andquot; otherwise the WildCard andquot;%andquot; is seen as a real identifier.

QUESTION 5
Your company has 120,000 client computers.
You plan to deploy System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) to the computers.
You need to install Configuration Manager by using the fewest number of sites possible.
Which site configuration should you use?
A. two individual stand-alone primary sites
B. a single primary site and four secondary sites
C. a stand-alone primary site
D. a Central Administration site and two primary sites
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You can deploy Configuration Manager as a single stand-alone primary site, or as multiple sites in a hierarchy.
Reference: Planning for Sites and Hierarchies in Configuration Man

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Your company has a security policy that contains mandatory registry settings for all servers.
You have a collection named Servers that contains all of the servers.
You need to identify which servers do not comply with the security policy.
What should you do? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-243 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Your company deploys a third-party Application to 10,000 client computers.
You need to ensure that you can run a report that lists all of the client computers that ran the Application last month. What should you do?
A. Modify the Enable hardware inventory on clients setting.
B. Enable a default WMI class in the Hardware Inventory Classes list.
C. Modify the Enable software inventory on clients setting.
D. Add a file name to the Hardware Inventory configuration.
E. Add a WMI class to the Hardware Inventory Classes list.
F. Add a file name to the Software Inventory configuration.
G. Add a file name to Software Metering.
H. Add a WMI class to the Sms_def.mof file.
I. Select Collect NOIDMIF files in Hardware Inventory.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: G
Explanation/Reference:
Introduction to Software Metering in Configuration Manager Use software metering in System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to monitor and collect software usage data from Configuration Manager cli

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. Your company deploys a custom Application to 2,000 client computers by using Configuration Manager. The Application is not listed in Add Remove Programs. You discover that information about the Application fails to appear in the inventory queries and inventory reports. You verify that information about other Applications appear in the inventory reports. You need to ensure that Configuration Manager data includes installation information about the custom Application. What should you do?
A. Add a file name to Software Metering.
B. Add a WMI class to the Hardware Inventory Classes file.
C. Add a file name to the Hardware Inventory configuration.
D. Enable a default WMI Cass in the Hardware Inventory Classes list.
E. Select Collect NOIDMIF files in Hardware Inventory.
F. Add a file name to the Software Inventory configuration.
G. Modify the Enable hardware inventory on Cents setting.
H. Add a WMI class to the Sms_def.mof file.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation/Reference:
Introduction to Software Inventory in Configuration Manager Use software inventory in System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to collect information about files that are contained on client devices

QUESTION 9
You have a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) standalone primary site.
You have a Configuration Manager application named App1 and a Configuration Manager package named Package1.
You need to ensure that App1 and Package1 are deployed only to Windows 8 computers.
In the table below, identify what to configure for App1 and Package1.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.
Hot Area:
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70-243 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Your company has a production network and a test network. Both networks have System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You create the following objects on the test network: A configuration item named SQLServerCI A configuration baseline named SQLServerBaseline that contains the configuration item A collection named SQLServers that contains all of the servers on the test network that run Microsoft SQL Server. You export the configuration baseline to SQLServerBaseline.cab. You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand Compliance Settings. You need to apply the configuration baseline to the servers on the production network that run SQL Server. You create a collection named SQLServers that contains all SQL Servers from the production network. What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click SQLServerCI, select Export, and then specify SQLServer Baseline.cab as the export file.
C. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the SQLServers collection.
D. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
E. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type SQLServers in the Filter…
box.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
C: To import configuration data in Configuration Manager
1.In the Configuration Manager console, click Assets and Compliance.
2.In the Assets and Compliance workspace,

QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) environment.
You deploy a Microsoft Office 2010 package to all client computers by using Configuration Manager.
Your company purchases Office 2013.
You need to ensure that all users can install Office 2013 from the Application Catalog. What should you do?
A. Deploy a new application for Office 2013.
B. Deploy a new package for Office 2013.
C. Deploy Office 2013 by using a Group Policy Object (GPO).
D. Update the Office 2010 source file and redeploy the package.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: How-to: Deploying Microsoft Office 2013 using SCCM 2012 https://gallery.technet.microsoft.com/office/How
to-Deploying-Office-0f954e7f
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★Share Some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 070-341 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(22-29)★

Question No : 22 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You need to create and configure a hierarchical address book (HAB) named Litware to reflect the company’s organizational chart. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Question No : 23 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You are planning the upgrade to Exchange Server 2013. You plan to perform the following tasks: Identify the number of email messages sent and received by the users in the current Exchange Server organization. Identify how many IOPS are required to provide adequate access to mailboxes for all of the users in the planned organization. Validate that all of the planned servers will meet the IOPS requirements of the planned organization. You need to identify which tool must be used to achieve each task. Which tools should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct task in the answer area. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 24 – (Topic 3)
You are testing the planned implementation of Exchange Server 2013. After you begin moving several mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013, you discover that users on the internal network that have been moved are prompted repeatedly for their credentials when they run Microsoft Outlook. You run the Get-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet on CH-EX4, and receive the following output:
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You need to prevent the internal users from being prompted for their credentials when they connect to their mailbox by using Outlook. Which property should you modify by using the Set-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet?
A. IISAuthenticationMethods
B. InternalHostname
C. ExternalHostname
D. ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod
E. InternalClientAuthenticationMethod
070-341 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
InternalClientAuthenticationMethod is NTLM
Windows Challenge/Response (NTLM) is the authentication protocol used on networks that include systems running the Windows operating system and on stand-alone systems. NTLM credentials are based on data obtained during the interactive logon process and
consist of a domain name, a user name, and a one-way hash of the user’s password. NEED TO CONVERT THE INTERNALCLIENTAUTHENTICATIONMETHOD TO BASIS NOT NTLM IN ORDER TO FIX THE ISSUE. USE IISAUTHENTICATIONMETHODS PARAMETER IN ORDER TO ACHIEVE THIS. Set-OutlookAnywhere Use the Set-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet to modify the properties on a computer running Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 enabled for Microsoft Outlook Anywhere.
EXAMPLE 1
This example sets the client authentication method to NTLM for the /rpc virtual directory on the Client Access server CAS01.
Set-OutlookAnywhere -Identity:CAS01\rpc (Default Web Site) – ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod:Ntlm
PARAMETERS
The IISAuthenticationMethods parameter specifies the authentication method enabled on the /rpc virtual directory in Internet Information Services (IIS). You can set the virtual directory to allow Basic authentication or NTLM authentication. Alternatively, you can also set the virtual directory to allow both Basic and NTLM authentication. All other authentication methods are disabled.
You may want to enable both Basic and NTLM authentication if you’re using the IIS virtual directory with multiple applications that require different authentication methods. The InternalHostname parameter specifies the internal hostname for the Outlook Anywhere
virtual directory. The ExternalHostname parameter specifies the external host name to use in the Microsoft Outlook profiles for users enabled for Outlook Anywhere. The ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod parameter specifies the authentication method used for external client authentication. Possible values include:
Basic
Digest
Ntlm
Fba
WindowsIntegrated
LiveIdFba
LiveIdBasic
LiveIdNegotiate
WSSecurity
Certificate
NegoEx
OAuth
Adfs
Kerberos
Negotiate
Misconfigured
The InternalClientAuthenticationMethod parameter specifies the authentication method used for internal client authentication. Possible values
include:
Basic
Digest
Ntlm
Fba
WindowsIntegrated
LiveIdFba
LiveIdBasic
LiveIdNegotiate
WSSecurity
Certificate
NegoEx
OAuth
Adfs
Kerberos
Negotiate
Misconfigured
Set-OutlookAnywhere: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 25 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You need to identify which external namespaces must be used for the Exchange servers in each office. Which external namespaces should you identify for each office? To answer, drag the appropriate namespace to the correct office in the answer area. Each
namespace may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 26 HOTSPOT – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for mailbox size restrictions. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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Question No : 27 DRAG DROP – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for email message recovery. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, configure the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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Question No : 28 – (Topic 4)
You are evaluating the planned deployment of the additional Exchange Server 2013 servers. You need to recommend changes to the DNS records to ensure that email messages are routed to the Detroit site if the servers in the New York site are unavailable. What should you recommend adding?
A. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX4
B. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX4
C. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX3
D. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX3
070-341 dumps Answer: B
Explanation: Configure Exchange to Accept Mail for Multiple Authoritative Domains: Exchange 2013 Help MX (mail exchange) Specifies a mail exchange server for the domain, which allows mail to be delivered to the correct mail servers in the domain. Managing DNS Records

Question No : 29 – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the issue of email messages not being received on the Internet. What should you include in the solution?
A. Modify the CNAME record.
B. Add an MX record.
C. Modify the TXT record.
D. Add a pointer (PTR) record.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detroit and New York users have direct connection to the internet but not Chicago users. It appears that via a Send Connector Chicago email is sent to New York mail server. Given this then the spf txt record listing the New York mail server is correct (131.107.1.200)
and there should not be any issues with the Chicago email Once the planned changes have been implemented then the DNS txt record would have to accommodate the Detroit Mail server (EX3) (131.107.2.200) in order for the email to function correctly for Detroit users.
However the question relates to Chicago users not Detroit users.
CNAME record
A Canonical Name or CNAME record is a type of DNS record that links an alias name to another canonical domain name. You’ll need to configure CNAME records if you want to use URL forwarding to create a custom web address, forward a URL to Google Sites, or forward a naked domain URL, as well as verify your site with your domain name provider. Lastly, you may need to use CNAME records to reset the administrator password if you can’t access the Google Apps control panel because you’ve forgotten the administrator
password. Your CNAME records are stored in the DNS Zone File as pairs of key values. The value of a CNAME record is always a domain name. CNAME records are often used to create subdomains. CNAME records are useful because they allow you to set up an alias to a server without using its IP address, through an intermediary standard domain name.
MX Record
MX records are DNS settings associated with your domain that direct its mail to the servers hosting your users’ mail accounts. These settings are managed by your domain host, not by Google. To make sure mail always gets delivered, you typically create records for multiple servers, all of which can deliver mail to users. That way, if one server is down, mail can be routed to another server, instead. You determine which servers get tried first by assigning priorities, using values like 10, 20, 30, and so on. The lowest value gets highest priority.
PTR Record
A DNS PTR record – for those of you who are wondering – is a special entry in the Domain Name System (DNS) that basically maps an IP address (like 65.55.12.249) to a domain name. Having a DNS PTR record for your IP address is (somewhat) a sign of reliability in the Internet, since only the owner of a specific network zone has the ability to create and edit these DNS records. Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS PTR entry: because of this reason, always suggest to make sure your public servers IP addresses have DNS PTR records configured properly. While EmailVerify.NET can validate email addresses even without a DNS PTR entry configured, the quality of the validation results in this event may be suboptimal.
TXT Record
A TXT record is an entry within the Domain Name System (DNS) that provides supplemental information about your domain.
A TXT (text) record is used to hold some text information. You can put virtually any free text you want within a TXT record.
A TXT record has a hostname so that you can assign the free text to a particular hostname/zone.
The most common use for TXT records is to store SPF (sender policy framework) records and to prevent emails being faked to appear to have been sent from you. The name field of the SPF record should be left blank unless mail is sent from a subdomain
such as username@mail.example-1.com. If this was the case “mail” would be entered in the name field of the record. Alternatively, of email is sent from username@example-1.com, the name field is left blank. The data field of the record is populated with the list of hosts that are permitted to send email for the domain in SPF record format. There are wizards which can assist in generating an SPF record available. The data field of the record must be enclosed in quotations so servers will read the value as a single string. Below is a default SPF record for example-1.com.
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NOT A
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record.
NOT B
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record.
NOT C
Need to modify the txt record for Detroit email users but not apparently for chicago email users.
D
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record. Managing DNS Records

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  • Install, Configure, and Manage the Mailbox Role (20-25%)
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QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic locations. The service locations may change. You must minimize the cost of communication between services. You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

70-534 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands. You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
You are designing an Azure web application. All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:

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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of least privilege. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 16 The chief operations officer (COO) has questioned the need for end-user training. Which of the following is the most effective response?
A.Indicate that you will not be responsible for the next virus outbreak.
B.Remind the CEO about the last virus attack and the expense incurred.
C.Explain that the cost of end-user training is a fraction of the cost of the last security breach caused by end users.
D.Provide statistics that definitively show how end-user training reduces the likelihood of security breaches on the corporate network.
70-534 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 17 Consider the following sequence:
user1@zeppelin:/public$ su –
root@zeppelin:# chmod 1777 /public
root@zeppelin:# exit
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of this command?
A.Only the root user can create and delete files in the /public directory.
B.All users can create, delete and read files in the /public directory, but only root has execute permissions.
C.All users can create and read files in the /public directory, but only root can delete another user’s file.
D.Any user can create files in the / directory, but no user can delete a file in this directory unless root permissions are obtained.
Answer: C

QUESTION 18 What is the first step of a gap analysis?
A.Scan the firewall.
B.Review antivirus settings.
C.Review the security policy.
D.Review intrusion-detection software settings.
70-534 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 19 Consider the following firewall rules: Incoming traffic:
TCP Port 25
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
Outgoing traffic:
TCP Ports 1024 through 65,535 to port 80: Denied
TCP Port 80: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied

UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
All company production servers reside behind the corporate firewall. However, you discover that the Web server performance is very low. After sniffing the traffic to the Web server, you learn that the Web server is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service attack in which millions of ping packets are being directed at the server. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for this situation?
A.There is a flaw in the firewall rule set.
B.The firewall is not configured to block ICMP packets generated by the ping command.
C.The attack is originating from a wireless access point (WAP) connected to the corporate network.
D.The attack is originating from a Web server that has not been properly updated, and which has been infected with a Trojan horse.
Answer: C

QUESTION 20 A Linux system running Apache Server has received millions of SYN packets that it can no longer respond to, because the client’s operator is maliciously withholding thenecessary reply packet. What is the most common solution for this problem?
A.Implement SSL.
B.Implement SYN cookie support.
C.Upgrade the TCP/IP stack with new software.
D.Upgrade the operating system to support IPsec.
70-534 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 21 Two routers in your company network require a firmware upgrade. Which of the following upgrade strategies will reduce downtime?
A.Conducting the upgrade while the routers are still running
B.Upgrading the routers using the latest upgrade software
C.Conducting the upgrade after rebooting the router
D.Upgrading the routers after business hours
Answer: D

QUESTION 22 You and your team have created a security policy document that is 120 pages long. Which of the following techniques will help ensure that upper-level managers read the essential policy elements?
A.Including a sign-off sheet
B.Including an executive summary
C.Using bold type to emphasize essential elements
D.Using italic type to emphasize essential elements
70-534 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 23 Which of the following is a main function of a company’s information security policy?
A.It obligates the IT department to basic services.
B.It defines basic responsibilities for all stakeholders.
C.It defines the responsibilities of employees and managers.
D.It defines basic responsibilities for executive management.
Answer: B

QUESTION 24 After consulting with the IT department, you have determined that a particular security solution is quite effective for protecting a particular resource, but not necessary due to the expense. Which of the following was conducted to enable this conclusion?
A.Risk analysis
B.Cost-to-benefit analysis
C.Physical security analysis
D.Resource priority analysis
70-534 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 25 You want to learn more about a security breach that was recently discovered in a Windows server. Which organization should you consult?
A.ISO
B.SANS
C.CERT
D.IETF
Answer: C

QUESTION 26 Your supervisor asks you to recommend a firewall. The firewall must provide the following services: The ability to filter specific traffic types (e.g., HTTP, SIP, POP3) User authenticationWeb page caching for later use Which type of firewall would you recommend?
A.Proxy
B.Stateful
C.Packet filter
D.Circuit-based
70-534 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 27 Which type of firewall provides a DMZ?
A.Dual-homed
B.Router-based
C.Single-homed
D.Screened-subnet
Answer: D

QUESTION 28 Company employees have noticed that the quality of voice calls on their Cisco IP phones is greatly reduced at various times during the day. After investigating the problem, you notice that the times when voice quality is reduced coincides with heavy e-mail traffic. Which of the following can you implement on the firewall to alleviate this problem?
A.Stateful inspection
B.Quality of Service (QoS)
C.Network address translation (NAT)
D.Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
70-534 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 29  Consider the following firewall rules:
Incoming traffic:
TCP Port 25: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
Outgoing traffic:
TCP Ports 1024 through 65,535 to port 80: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
All company production servers reside behind the corporate firewall. However, you discover that the Web server performance is very low. After sniffing the traffic to the Web server, you learn that the Web server is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service attack in which millions of ping packets are being directed at the server. Which is the most plausible explanation for this situation?
A.There is a flaw in the firewall rule set.
B.The attack is being conducted from an internal host.
C.The Web server has been infected with a Trojan horse.
D.The firewall is not configured to block ICMP packets generated by the ping command.
Answer: B

QUESTION 30 A packet is being sent from one computer to the next. This packet is being processed by an application designed to encrypt sensitive data. One of the duties of this application is to ensure that a packet has not been altered by an intruder. Which type of encryption is this application most likely to use to achieve this goal?
A.One-time pad

B.Hash encryption
C.Symmetric-key encryption
D.Asymmetric-key encryption
70-534 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 31 Which of the following is responsible for encrypting the data packets encapsulated in an SSL-enabled HTTP session?
A.One-way encryption B.One
time pad (OTP) C.Symmetric
key encryption D.Asymmetric
key encryption Answer: C

QUESTION 32 You have used an application called PGP to protect the contents of an e-mail message. Which technology is used to encrypt the key that protects the data in the e-mail message?
A.Symmetric-key encryption
B.Asymmetric-key encryption
C.Diffie-Hellman key exchange protocol
D.Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
70-534 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 33 Your Web browser issued a warning message that a certificate has not been signed by a recognized authority. This fact indicates that:
A.an attack is in progress.
B.the ensuing session will not be encrypted.
C.the Certificate Authority (CA) has revoked the certificate.
D.the browser does not recognize the Certificate Authority (CA).
Answer: D

QUESTION 34 A device that provides voice and fax services between your local LAN and the Internet has been installed in the DMZ of your network. However, you cannot send or receive faxes. Which of the following steps is most likely going to solve this problem, while still protecting your network resources?
A.Configure the fax device to use the T.441 protocol.
B.Configure your firewall to allow the T.38 protocol.
C.Move the fax device off the firewall and make it directly accessible to the Internet.
D.Configure your firewall to forward all UDP-based packets from the Internet to the company PBX.
70-534 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 35 Employee computers have been attacked repeatedly. The attacker appears to be working internally, and has been able to scan internal systems for weaknesses. Which of the following will best help you stop these attacks?
A.Installing Webcams
B.Upgrading antivirus software
C.Installing desktop firewalls
D.Establishing a regular auditing schedule
Answer: C

QUESTION 36 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
70-534 exam 
Answer: A

QUESTION 37 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer:A

QUESTION 38 Which of the following is true when Cognos 8 gateway receives a request?
A. Requests are passed directly to the Cognos content manager.
B. A connection is created to the database server.
C. The requests are directed to Access Manager.
D. Passwords are encrypted to ensure security.
70-534 dumps 
Answer: D

QUESTION 39 Which of the following is true about Cognos 8 dispatchers?
A. Requests can be routed to specific dispatchers based on packages or user group requirements.
B. Each Java Virtual Machine (JVM) can have multiple dispatchers.
C. The administrator must register a new dispatcher manually.
D. Dispatchers cannot be managed as part of a folder set.
Answer: A

QUESTION 40 What is a portlet?
A. The routing subsection of a listener port.
B. A mechanism for displaying web content as part of a portal page.
C. A credential that is stored on the Web server.
D. A credential that is stored for the session only.
70-534 pdf
Answer: B

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QUESTION 116
When redistributing OSPF into RIP V2 what must be taken into consideration for the redistribution to take place?
A. The metric must be set accordingly for RIP
B. The subnet mask must be removed from the OSPF route
C. You must divide the cost of the OSPF route by three
D. The router must be configured as an ASBR
74-678 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
What is wrong with the following filter configuration from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
RTR-B# configure filter
RTR-B>config>filter# ip-filter 1 create
RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter$ entry 1 create
RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry$ match src-ip 172.2.0.0/16 RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry# action drop
RTR-B# configure router interface toRTR-A
RTR-B>config>router>if# egress
RTR-B>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1
A. There is nothing wrong with this filter
B. The filter should be applied to the ingress and not the egress.
C. The mask cannot be a “/” value, it must be in dotted decimal.
D. All traffic is being blocked
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
When configuring a filter, where should the most explicit entries be placed?
A. At the bottom
B. In the middle
C. At the top
D. It does not matter where they are placed.
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
From the list below identify two matching criteria supported for IP filters on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR: (Choose two)
A. DSCP marking
B. Class of Service Marking
C. DSAP marking
D. ICMP type
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 120
What command is used on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to define the default action to be taken if a packet does not match any entry in an IP filter?
A. config>filter# default-action XXX
B. config>filter>ip-filter# default-action XXX
C. config>filter# default-mode XXX
D. config>filter>ip-filter# default-mode XXX
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
What is another term to describe the default route for a client?
A. Black hole
B. Default gateway
C. Gateway path
D. Proxy ARP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
Which of the following is not one of the MT topologies defined for IS-IS?
A. IPv4 In-Band Management
B. IPv6 Routing
C. IPv4 Multicast Routing
D. IPv6 Multicast Routing
E. All of the above are MT topologies defined for IS-IS.
74-678 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 123
Click the exhibit button
The 192 168 3.0/24 network is learned on router R1 via IS-IS Given the OSPF configuration shown, and assuming that the OSPF adjacency between routers R1 and R3 is up, why is the 192 168.3.0/24 route not in router R3’s route table? (Choose two)
A. The route policy should be applied as in import policy
B. The no-redistribute-external command is used on router R1
C. The route policy is incorrect. It should say “from protocol ISIS” rather than “from protocol direct”.
D. It is not possible to be an ASBR and an NSSA. The ASBR configuration should be removed.
E. The interface between routers R1 and R3 needs to be in OSPF area 0 rather than OSPF area 1
because a backbone area must always exist.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 124
Which of the following best describes the actions after an IS-IS router receives on a broadcast interface, a newer LSP than the one in its database?
A. The router sends a copy of the LSP from its database to its neighbor
B. The router updates its database with the LSP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.
C. The router updates its database with the LSP, acknowledges the LSP with a PSNP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.
D. The router updates its database with the LSP and acknowledges it with a PSNP.

74-678 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that OSPFv3 is properly configured on all routers and that R4 advertises its system prefix into Area 0. Which of the following statements best describes how R5 learns R4’s IPv6 system prefix?
A. With a Router LSA originated by R1
B. With a Router LSA originated by R5
C. With a Router LSA originated by R4
D. With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R1
E. With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R5
F. With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Click the exhibit button.
192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3. Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?
A. Add the “originate-default-route” option in the NSSA area configuration on router R3
B. Add the “summaries” option to the NSSA area configuration on router R1
C. Make a static route on router R1 to 192.168.3.1
D. Make a default route on router R2
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which of the statements about the output in the exhibit is FALSE?
A. The system interface is configured with IPv6 address 2001DB8 1:100:1/128
B. All interfaces are configured for IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Interface “toR2” is configured with a globally routed IPv6 address.
D. Interface “toR3” is not configured for IPv6 with a global IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Q&As: 95

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QUESTION: 15
Scenario:
Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question You are serving as the Lead Architect for the enterprise architecture team at the prime contractor for the Dreadnought Unmanned Aircraft System program. Over the course of this contract, the company has grown rapidly by acquisition and has inherited numerous different procurement processes and related IT systems. The decision has been made to consolidate and reduce redundant procurement processes and systems. The CEO has announced that the company will seek to leverage higher volume discounts and lower related IT support costs by instituting a preferred supplier program. TOGAF 9 Is used for internal Enterprise Architecture activities, with an iterative approach for executing Architecture Development Method (ADM) projects. At present, there are no particularly useful architectural assets related to this initiative, so all assets need to be acquired and customized or created from scratch. The company prefers to implement commercial off the shelf package applications with little customization. The CIO, who is the project sponsor, has stated that she is not concerned about preserving existing processes or systems. The architect-re development project has put in place Its Architecture Capability for this project and has started a number of iteration cycles to develop the Architecture. Some tasks to address concerns related to the Business Architecture have been completed. The next immediate task is to address the Information Systems Architectures. The Information Systems Architectures must address stakeholder concerns such as:
1. Which procurement-related business processes are supported by zero, one, or many existing applications?
2. What non-procurement applications will need to be integrated with any new procurement applications?
3. What data will need to be shared?
Refer to the Scenario
[Note: You may need to refer to TOGAF 9 Chapter 35 in order to answer this question.] You have been asked to identify the most appropriate catalogs, matrices, and diagrams for this situation. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. in the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture using a Data Entity/Data Component catalog. In the later Iterations of the Architecture Definition, you would describe the Target Application Architecture using Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix.
B. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with an Application and User Location diagram and a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.
C. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Business Function matrix and a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.
D. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a Technology Portfolio catalog, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data diagram. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with a System/Technology matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Dissemination diagram.
70-695 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Which of the following statements regarding RSVP-TE is FALSE?
A. RSVP-TE operates in a downstream unsolicited label advertisement mode.
B. RSVP-TE makes use of ordered control mode.
C. RSVP-TE is an MPLS signaling protocol, based on the resource reservation protocol.
D. RSVP-TE enables the establishment of explicitly routed LSPs that can be automatically routed away from network failures
E. RSVP-TE supports explicitly routed LSPs using either loose or strict route definitions.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Click on the exhibit button below:
Consider the following:
– Router R2 is an ABR in OSPF Areas 0 and 1.
– Router R2 advertises the aggregate prefix 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1.
– Router R1 in Area 0 generates LDP labels for FECs 10.10.102/31 and 10.10.10.4/31 Router R3 in Area 1
places these FECs in its LIB, but it does not place them in its LFIB. What can you do on router R3 to make it populate these labels in its LFIB?
A. Disable route summarization on router R3

B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match
C. Create an import policy to accept these FECs
D. Disable LDP exact match on the specified FECs
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
An LSP path is configured as follows:
– Shared-explicit reservation style
– Make-before-break (MBB) enabled
– 500Mpbs bandwidth reserved on a 1Gbps link
With 100Mbps of unreserved bandwidth remaining, the operator increases the LSP-path’s bandwidth reservation to 900Mbps. What happens to the existing LSP?
A. CSPF looks for the delta bandwidth, taking down the first path if necessary.
B. CSPF looks for the delta bandwidth, implementing make-before-break.
C. After 5 failed attempts to find the bandwidth requested, the head end disables the LSP.
D. CSPF looks for the entire bandwidth requested, implementing MBB.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Which approach to LSP path diversity provides the most control, but the least flexibility?
A. Administrative Groups
B. Shared Risk Link Groups
C. Strict hop LSP paths
D. Fast reroute
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Correct Answer: C

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11.John works as an Office Assistant for HappyTech Inc. He is assigned with the task of creating
invitation cards for his colleagues. There are about 200 employees in the company. What should he
do to ease the creation of cards?
A. Create individual invitation cards.
B. Create a theme.C. Create a Quick Style.
D. Create a template.
70-473 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
A template is a tool that is used to create a standard layout and the look and feel across multiple
pages. A user creates a template when he wants to apply the same layout to multiple pages in a
document. When he makes a change in the template, all the pages associated with it are affected
and the corresponding change is reflected in all the pages.
Answer: B is incorrect. A theme is used to create a professional and well-designed document. It is a
set of formatting choices such as a set of theme colors, theme fonts, and theme effects. When a
theme is applied to a document, the following are customize
D. hyperlink colors, body and heading styles, lists, table border colors, and background colors.
Answer: A is incorrect. Creating individual invitation cards will be extremely time consuming.
Answer: C is incorrect. Quick Style is a set of stored formats that are applied all at once anywhere in
the document. Rather than choosing different types of formats every time and applying them, a user
can create a Quick Style and apply it at other places in the same document or in other documents.
12.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. All computers in the company have Microsoft
Office 2007 installed. You have created a presentation in PowerPoint 2007. You open a slide. You
need to insert a shape in the slide. Choose and reorder the 70-473 dumps steps to accomplish the task.
Explanation: Take the following steps to insert shapes to a slid E.
1.Click on the Insert tab and select the Shapes option.
2.Click the drop-down list of the Shapes option and select a shape.
3.Drag the pointer to draw the shape. The selected shape will be appeared on the slide.
13.Jasmine creates a presentation. She assigns a digital signature on the presentation. After some
time, the signature becomes invalid. Which of the following is the cause of the issue?
A. She has changed the presentation.
B. She has removed the digital signature.
C. She has assigned a hyperlink.
D. She has applied a slide transition.
70-473 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
In Microsoft PowerPoint2007, a digital signature becomes invalid if the creator of a presentation
makes any changes to the presentation after assigning the digital signature.
14.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. All computers in the company have Microsoft
Office 2007 installed. You have created a document in Word 2007. The document is divided into
fifteen sections. You need to print only the fourth section and the tenth section of the document. You
open the Print dialog box. Which of the following instructions will you enter in the Pages box to
accomplish the task?
A. s4 & s10
B. s4-10
C. s4,10
D. s4,s10
70-473 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
Type s4,s10 in the Pages box to accomplish the task.
NotE. p denotes the page number, and s denotes the section number. A user can also print a range
of pages within a section. For example, to print pages 20 through 25 in section 5, type p20s5-p25s5 in
the Pages box of the Print dialog box. To print an entire section, type s[section number]. For
example, to print section 5, type s5 in the Pages box of the Print dialog box. Answer: A, B, and C are
incorrect. These are incorrect instructions.
15.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. All 70-473 exam computers in the company have Microsoft
Office 2007 installed. You need to insert a clip art into a Word 2007 document. Choose and reorder
the steps that you will take to accomplish the task?
Explanation: Take the following steps to insert a clip art in a document:
1.Open the document and place the cursor where the clip art is to be inserted.
2.Click on the Insert tab, and then click the “Clip Art” button.
3.The Clip Art task pane will be displayed on the right side of the window. Enter a keyword in the
“Search for” box, and then click the Go button.
4.In the results list, click the thumbnail of the image to be inserted.
16.Sam works in an office and he is assigned with the task of preparing a document. He inserts a picture in it. He makes some formatting changes to the picture. Now he wants to change the current picture to a different picture by preserving the formatting and size of the current picture. Mark the option that he should choose to accomplish the task.
Explanation: The Change Picture option is used to change the selected picture to a different picture
by preserving the formatting and size of the current picture.
17.You review a document and you want to add some suggestions to a part of the document. What
will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Insert a comment.
B. Insert a caption.
C. Insert a footer.
D. Enable Track Changes.
Answer: A
70-473 dumps Explanation:
Comment is a text that reviewers may add to suggest some changes to a part of the document. It
helps the creator of the document to know what other person(s) think of the document. Answer: D
is incorrect. The Track Changes option is used to view all the changes that are done by the
reviewer(s). It helps the creator of the document to view the changes like insertions, deletions, and
formatting. Answer: C is incorrect. Footer is an area in a document where a user can put vital
information such as page number, date of creation of document, time of creation of document,
filename, and other information. It always appears on the bottom of each page. Answer: B is
incorrect. Caption is a title for an image. It is written below the image to help a reader build a story
around the image. Caption is a statement that provides brief explanation of the image.
18.State whether the following statement is true or false. “Quick Print is used to send a document
directly to the default printer. It is the quickest and one step solution for printing a document without
making any changes.”
A. False B.
True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement given above is TRU
E. Quick Print is used to send a document directly to the default printer. It is the quickest and one step solution for printing a document without making any changes.

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QUESTION NO: 1
In order to develop a global competency model for global leaders at a high tech company, a HR
Manager decides to study the connotation of specific attributes across the various office locations.
Which of the following types of culture would be the LFAST valuable to evaluate in order to
develop a valid and reliable model?
A. Local culture
B. Professional culture
C. National culture
D. Corporate culture
070-461 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following ways does a U.S. company practices regarding industrial relations differ
from the approach of most nations?
A. Automatic representation
B. Government mandate approach
C. Positive approach
D. Employer free speech
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
An U.S. base Engineering Manager has been identified for a short-term six-month assignment to
recruit and build a team in England. Which of the following training programs is the MOST critical
to ensure success on the job?
A. On-the-job training
B. Multi-cultural team building
C. Language
D. Cross-cultural training
070-461 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
According to Gregersen and Black, which of the following type of expatriate is the most likely to
work through problems by constantly weighing the pros and cons of basing decision s on localized
values vs. the corporation’s standardized procedures and processes?
A. Dual citizen
B. Expatriate who “goes native”
C. Homebound expatriate
D. Free agent
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A corporation has identified an initiative to recruit and train global leaders over the next 5 year in
order to become a truly transnational company. In order to meet this goal, the firm has identified
and developed 30 international assignments amongst its 10 office locations. Which of the following
candidates would LEAST match these positions?
A. A 25-year old human resources representative working in South Korea who just started at the
company
B. A 40-year old finance manager working in Africa who has been with the company for 8 years
C. A 40-year old manufacturing manager working in Thailand who has been with the company for
5 years
D. A 55-year old engineering manager working in the U.S. who has been with company for 10
years and has gone on 3 international assignments
070-461 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following represents motivator to a culture that values asvription?
A. Defined processes and procedures
B. Diplomacy
C. Challenge
D. Network
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following factors is NOT a significant, variable in how an individual may adjust to a
new cross-cultural environment?
A. Extent of previous experience on international assignments
B. Differences between the cultures
C. Length of time international assignment
D. Family situation
070-461 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following factors is NOT likely an issue a human resources professional would help a
family to work through to determine the appropriateness of an international assignment for the
family at that time?
A. Is adventure and discovering new things characteristic of the family?
B. Is the family stable and relationships currently harmonious?
C. Is there a history of drug abuse in the family?
D. Are the children open to moving to the host country?
Answer: C
Explanation:

Question No : 9 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button).

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query for a report. The query must meet the following requirements:
NOT use object delimiters.
Return the most recent orders first.
Use the first initial of the table as an alias.
Return the most recent order date for each customer.
Retrieve the last name of the person who placed the order.
Return the order date in a column named MostRecentOrderDate that appears as

the last column in the report.
The solution must support the ANSI SQL-99 standard.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 exam Answer:

070-461 dumps

Question No : 10 CORRECT TEXT You have an XML schema collection named Sales.InvoiceSchema. You need to declare a
variable of the XML type named XML1. The solution must ensure that XML1 is validated by
using Sales.InvoiceSchema. Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.

 

Question No : 11 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that returns a list of products from Sales.ProductCatalog. The
solution must meet the following requirements:
UnitPrice must be returned in descending order.
The query must use two-part names to reference the table.
The query must use the RANK function to calculate the results.
The query must return the ranking of rows in a column named PriceRank

✑ ✑
The list must display the columns in the order that they are defined in the table.
PriceRank must appear last.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 dumps Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No : 12 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑
You have an application named Appl. You have a parameter named @Count that uses the
int data type. App1 is configured to pass @Count to a stored procedure. You need to
create a stored procedure named usp_Customers for Appl. Usp_Customers must meet the
following requirements:
NOT use object delimiters.
Minimize sorting and counting.
Return only the last name of each customer in alphabetical order.

Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No : 13  You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Decimal
070-461 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

Question No : 14  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee.
Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables.
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you a create a self-reference foreign key
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeelD
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 vce Answer: I

 

Question No : 15  You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named BlogEntry that
has the following columns:

070-461 dumps
You need to append the “This is in a draft stage” string to the Summary column of the
recent 10 entries based on the values in EntryDateTime.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. UPDATE TOP(10) BlogEntry
SET Summary.WRITE(N’ This is in a draft stage’, NULL, 0)
B. UPDATE BlogEntry
SET Summary = CAST(N’ This is in a draft stage’ as nvarchar(max))
WHERE Id IN(SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC)
C. UPDATE BlogEntry
SET Summary.WRITE(N’ This is in a draft stage’, NULL, 0) FROM (
SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC) AS s
WHERE BlogEntry.Id = s.ID
D. UPDATE BlogEntry
SET Summary.WRITE(N’ This is in a draft stage’, 0, 0)
WHERE Id IN(SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC)
Answer: C
Question No : 16 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application.
You create a stored procedure named DeleteJobCandidate.
You need to ensure that if DeleteJobCandidate encounters an error, the execution of the
stored procedure reports the error number.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DECLARE @ErrorVar INT;
DECLARE @RowCountVar INT;
EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
SELECT @ErrorVar = @@ERROR, @RowCountVar = @@ROWCOUNT;
IF (@ErrorVar <> 0)
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(@@ErrorVar AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@RowCountVar AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
B. DECLARE @ErrorVar INT; DECLARE @RowCountVar INT;
EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
SELECT @ErrorVar = ERROR_STATE(), @RowCountVar = @@ROWCOUNT;
IF (@ErrorVar <> 0)
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(ERRORSTATE() AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@RowCountVar AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
C. EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
IF (ERROR_STATE() != 0)
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(@@ERROR AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@ROWCOUNT AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
D. EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(@@ERROR AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@ROWCOUNT AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
070-461 dumps Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 28, 2017
Q&As: 503
Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
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QUESTION 22
Consider aWebLogicDomain that consists of an Administration Server and four clustered Managed Servers. Each server is running on its own hardware using JVM 1.4.1. TheMangaedServers are running on dedicated dual-CPU servers. You have been assigned to tune thisWebLogicdeployment. While monitoring garbage collection on a Managed Server, you notice unacceptably long pauses. What is the best way to attempt to reduce the pauses?
A. Increase the heap size.
B. Tune the garbage collection method.
C. Add more servers to the cluster.
D. Run more servers per machine.
E. Both A and C.

Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 28, 2017
Q&As: 427
Published: September 21, 2012
Languages: English, German, Japanese
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
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70-417 exam QUESTION 46
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both
servers have the Hyper-V server role installed.Server1 and Server2 are located in different offices. The
offices connect to each other by using a high-latency WAN link.
Server2 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can start VM1 on Server1 if Server2 fails. The solution must minimize
hardware costs.
What should you do?
A. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server2, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication
for VM1.
B. On Server1, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
C. On Server2, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
D. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server1, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication
for VM1.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You first have to enable replication on the Replica server–Server1–by going to the server and modifying

the “Replication Configuration” settings under Hyper-V settings. You then go to VM1–which presides on
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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Mar 23, 2017
Q&As: 206
Published: April 7, 2014
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2
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Microsoft 70-413 Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Mar 2017)

 QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.

D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only
supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.

 

70-413 exam QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the
recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The
Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications
as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and
flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses
innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management
and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and
management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance
customers.
Reference: Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack

 

QUESTION 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The
solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to
contoso.com.
Reference: Delegation of Control Wizard

 

70-413 exam QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the
users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to
contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to
the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the
contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com.
On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

 

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
*
It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations.
Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t
support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

 

70-413 exam QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The
web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

 

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend which changes must be implemented to the network before you can deploy the new web application.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Change the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Upgrade the DNS servers to Windows Server 2012.
C. Change the functional level of both the domains to Windows Server 2008 R2.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scenario:
The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.
The company is migrating to Windows Server 2012.

 

70-413 exam QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario: Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
* The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature distributes traffic across several servers by using the TCP/IP networking protocol. By combining two or more
computers that are running applications into a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-critical servers.
Reference: Network Load Balancing Overview70-413 exam

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