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Question No : 22 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You need to create and configure a hierarchical address book (HAB) named Litware to reflect the company’s organizational chart. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Question No : 23 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You are planning the upgrade to Exchange Server 2013. You plan to perform the following tasks: Identify the number of email messages sent and received by the users in the current Exchange Server organization. Identify how many IOPS are required to provide adequate access to mailboxes for all of the users in the planned organization. Validate that all of the planned servers will meet the IOPS requirements of the planned organization. You need to identify which tool must be used to achieve each task. Which tools should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct task in the answer area. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 24 – (Topic 3)
You are testing the planned implementation of Exchange Server 2013. After you begin moving several mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013, you discover that users on the internal network that have been moved are prompted repeatedly for their credentials when they run Microsoft Outlook. You run the Get-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet on CH-EX4, and receive the following output:
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You need to prevent the internal users from being prompted for their credentials when they connect to their mailbox by using Outlook. Which property should you modify by using the Set-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet?
A. IISAuthenticationMethods
B. InternalHostname
C. ExternalHostname
D. ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod
E. InternalClientAuthenticationMethod
070-341 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
InternalClientAuthenticationMethod is NTLM
Windows Challenge/Response (NTLM) is the authentication protocol used on networks that include systems running the Windows operating system and on stand-alone systems. NTLM credentials are based on data obtained during the interactive logon process and
consist of a domain name, a user name, and a one-way hash of the user’s password. NEED TO CONVERT THE INTERNALCLIENTAUTHENTICATIONMETHOD TO BASIS NOT NTLM IN ORDER TO FIX THE ISSUE. USE IISAUTHENTICATIONMETHODS PARAMETER IN ORDER TO ACHIEVE THIS. Set-OutlookAnywhere Use the Set-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet to modify the properties on a computer running Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 enabled for Microsoft Outlook Anywhere.
EXAMPLE 1
This example sets the client authentication method to NTLM for the /rpc virtual directory on the Client Access server CAS01.
Set-OutlookAnywhere -Identity:CAS01\rpc (Default Web Site) – ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod:Ntlm
PARAMETERS
The IISAuthenticationMethods parameter specifies the authentication method enabled on the /rpc virtual directory in Internet Information Services (IIS). You can set the virtual directory to allow Basic authentication or NTLM authentication. Alternatively, you can also set the virtual directory to allow both Basic and NTLM authentication. All other authentication methods are disabled.
You may want to enable both Basic and NTLM authentication if you’re using the IIS virtual directory with multiple applications that require different authentication methods. The InternalHostname parameter specifies the internal hostname for the Outlook Anywhere
virtual directory. The ExternalHostname parameter specifies the external host name to use in the Microsoft Outlook profiles for users enabled for Outlook Anywhere. The ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod parameter specifies the authentication method used for external client authentication. Possible values include:
Basic
Digest
Ntlm
Fba
WindowsIntegrated
LiveIdFba
LiveIdBasic
LiveIdNegotiate
WSSecurity
Certificate
NegoEx
OAuth
Adfs
Kerberos
Negotiate
Misconfigured
The InternalClientAuthenticationMethod parameter specifies the authentication method used for internal client authentication. Possible values
include:
Basic
Digest
Ntlm
Fba
WindowsIntegrated
LiveIdFba
LiveIdBasic
LiveIdNegotiate
WSSecurity
Certificate
NegoEx
OAuth
Adfs
Kerberos
Negotiate
Misconfigured
Set-OutlookAnywhere: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 25 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You need to identify which external namespaces must be used for the Exchange servers in each office. Which external namespaces should you identify for each office? To answer, drag the appropriate namespace to the correct office in the answer area. Each
namespace may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 26 HOTSPOT – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for mailbox size restrictions. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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Question No : 27 DRAG DROP – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for email message recovery. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, configure the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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Question No : 28 – (Topic 4)
You are evaluating the planned deployment of the additional Exchange Server 2013 servers. You need to recommend changes to the DNS records to ensure that email messages are routed to the Detroit site if the servers in the New York site are unavailable. What should you recommend adding?
A. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX4
B. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX4
C. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX3
D. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX3
070-341 dumps Answer: B
Explanation: Configure Exchange to Accept Mail for Multiple Authoritative Domains: Exchange 2013 Help MX (mail exchange) Specifies a mail exchange server for the domain, which allows mail to be delivered to the correct mail servers in the domain. Managing DNS Records

Question No : 29 – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the issue of email messages not being received on the Internet. What should you include in the solution?
A. Modify the CNAME record.
B. Add an MX record.
C. Modify the TXT record.
D. Add a pointer (PTR) record.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detroit and New York users have direct connection to the internet but not Chicago users. It appears that via a Send Connector Chicago email is sent to New York mail server. Given this then the spf txt record listing the New York mail server is correct (131.107.1.200)
and there should not be any issues with the Chicago email Once the planned changes have been implemented then the DNS txt record would have to accommodate the Detroit Mail server (EX3) (131.107.2.200) in order for the email to function correctly for Detroit users.
However the question relates to Chicago users not Detroit users.
CNAME record
A Canonical Name or CNAME record is a type of DNS record that links an alias name to another canonical domain name. You’ll need to configure CNAME records if you want to use URL forwarding to create a custom web address, forward a URL to Google Sites, or forward a naked domain URL, as well as verify your site with your domain name provider. Lastly, you may need to use CNAME records to reset the administrator password if you can’t access the Google Apps control panel because you’ve forgotten the administrator
password. Your CNAME records are stored in the DNS Zone File as pairs of key values. The value of a CNAME record is always a domain name. CNAME records are often used to create subdomains. CNAME records are useful because they allow you to set up an alias to a server without using its IP address, through an intermediary standard domain name.
MX Record
MX records are DNS settings associated with your domain that direct its mail to the servers hosting your users’ mail accounts. These settings are managed by your domain host, not by Google. To make sure mail always gets delivered, you typically create records for multiple servers, all of which can deliver mail to users. That way, if one server is down, mail can be routed to another server, instead. You determine which servers get tried first by assigning priorities, using values like 10, 20, 30, and so on. The lowest value gets highest priority.
PTR Record
A DNS PTR record – for those of you who are wondering – is a special entry in the Domain Name System (DNS) that basically maps an IP address (like 65.55.12.249) to a domain name. Having a DNS PTR record for your IP address is (somewhat) a sign of reliability in the Internet, since only the owner of a specific network zone has the ability to create and edit these DNS records. Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS PTR entry: because of this reason, always suggest to make sure your public servers IP addresses have DNS PTR records configured properly. While EmailVerify.NET can validate email addresses even without a DNS PTR entry configured, the quality of the validation results in this event may be suboptimal.
TXT Record
A TXT record is an entry within the Domain Name System (DNS) that provides supplemental information about your domain.
A TXT (text) record is used to hold some text information. You can put virtually any free text you want within a TXT record.
A TXT record has a hostname so that you can assign the free text to a particular hostname/zone.
The most common use for TXT records is to store SPF (sender policy framework) records and to prevent emails being faked to appear to have been sent from you. The name field of the SPF record should be left blank unless mail is sent from a subdomain
such as username@mail.example-1.com. If this was the case “mail” would be entered in the name field of the record. Alternatively, of email is sent from username@example-1.com, the name field is left blank. The data field of the record is populated with the list of hosts that are permitted to send email for the domain in SPF record format. There are wizards which can assist in generating an SPF record available. The data field of the record must be enclosed in quotations so servers will read the value as a single string. Below is a default SPF record for example-1.com.
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NOT A
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record.
NOT B
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record.
NOT C
Need to modify the txt record for Detroit email users but not apparently for chicago email users.
D
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record. Managing DNS Records

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QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
 352-001 dumps
In this design, which technology would provide for the best use of resources to provide end-to- end Layer 2 connectivity?
A. MSTP
B. PAgP
C. Multichassis EtherChannel
D. LACP
352-001 exam 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What are three key design principles when using a classic hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
A. The core layer controls access to resources for security.
B. The core layer should be configured with minimal complexity.
C. The core layer is designed first, followed by the distribution layer and then the access layer.
D. A hierarchical network design model aids fault isolation.
E. The core layer provides server access in a small campus.
F. A hierarchical network design facilitates changes.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 21
Which three techniques can be used to improve fault isolation in an enterprise network design? (Choose three.)
A. aggregate routing information on an OSPF ABR
B. fully meshed distribution layer
C. Equal-Cost Multipath routing
D. EIGRP query boundaries
E. multiple IS-IS flooding domains
F. tuned Spanning Tree Protocol timers
352-001 dumps 
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 22
When you design a network, when would it be required to leak routes into a Level 1 area?
A. when a multicast RP is configured in the nonbackbone area
B. when MPLS L3VPN PE devices are configured in the Level 1 areas
C. when equal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas
D. when unequal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
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In this network design, where should summarization occur to provide the best summarization and optimal paths during a single-failure incident as well as during normal operation?
A. a single identical summary for all the branch offices placed on routers 1A, 1B, 2A, and 2B
B. two summaries on 1A and 1B, and two summaries on 2A and 2B
C. a single identical summary on 3A and 3B
D. a single summary on each aggregation device for the branches connected to them
352-001 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What are two benefits of following a structured hierarchical and modular design? (Choose two.)
A. Each component can be designed independently for its role.
B. Each component can be managed independently based on its role.
C. Each component can be funded by different organizations based on its role.
D. Each component can support multiple roles based on the requirements.
E. Each component can provide redundancy for applications and services.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
In a large enterprise network with multiple data centers and thousands of access devices, OSPF is becoming unstable due to link flapping. The current design has the access devices multihomed to large aggregation routers at each of the data centers. How would you redesign the network to improve stability?
A. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers.
B. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers.
C. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device.
D. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device.
352-001 vce 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
During a network design review, it is recommended that the network with a single large area should be broken up into a backbone and multiple nonbackbone areas. There are differing opinions on how many ABRs are needed for each area for redundancy. What would be the impact of having additional ABRs per area?
A. There is no impact to increasing the number of ABRs.
B. The SPF calculations are more complex.
C. The number of externals and network summaries are increased.
D. The size of the FIB is increased.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
A large enterprise customer is migrating thousands of retail offices from legacy TDM circuits to an Ethernet-based service. The network is running OSPF and has been stable for many years. It is now possible to backhaul the circuits directly to the data centers, bypassing the regional aggregation routers. Which two networking issues need to be addressed to ensure stability with the new design? (Choose two.)
A. Nothing will change if the number of offices is the same.
B. Nothing will change if the number of physical interfaces stays the same.

C. The RIB will increase significantly.
D. The FIB will increase significantly.
E. The amount of LSA flooding will increase significantly.
F. The size of the link-state database will increase significantly.
352-001 exam 
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
 352-001 dumps

The design is being proposed for use within the network. The CE devices are OSPF graceful restart-capable, and the core devices are OSPF graceful restart aware. The WAN advertisements received from BGP are redistributed into OSPF. A forwarding supervisor failure event takes place on CE A. During this event, how will the routes learned from the WAN be seen on the core devices?
A. via CE A and CE B
B. via CE A
C. via CE B
D. no WAN routes will be accessible
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
 352-001 dumps
How would you adjust the design to improve convergence on the network?
A. Add an intra-POP link between routers 1A and 1B, and enable IP LFA FRR.
B. Use an IP SLA between the end stations to detect path failures.
C. Enable SSO-NSF on routers 1A and 1B.
D. Use BGP to connect the sites over the WAN.
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Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
A company requests that you consult with them regarding the design of their production, development, and test environments. They indicate that the environments must communicate effectively, but they must be kept separate due to the inherent failures on the development network. What will be configured on the links between the networks to support their design requirements?
A. IBGP
B. EBGP
C. OSPF
D. static routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Who is responsible for ensuring that information is categorized and that specific protective measures are taken?
A. The security officer
B. Senior management
C. The end user
D. The custodian
352-001 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Routine administration of all aspects of security is delegated, but top management must retain overall responsibility. The security officer supports and implements information security for senior management. The end user does not perform categorization. The custodian supports and implements information security measures as directed.

QUESTION 32
An organization’s board of directors has learned of recent legislation requiring organizations within the industry to enact specific safeguards to protect confidential customer information.What actions should the board take next?
A. Direct information security on what they need to do
B. Research solutions to determine the proper solutions
C. Require management to report on compliance
D. Nothing; information security does not report to the board
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security governance is the responsibility of the board of directors and executive management. In this instance, the appropriate action is to ensure that a plan is in place for implementation of needed safeguards and to require updates on that implementation.

QUESTION 33
Information security should be:
A. focused on eliminating all risks.
B. a balance between technical and business requirements.

C. driven by regulatory requirements.
D. defined by the board of directors.
352-001 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security should ensure that business objectives are met given available technical capabilities, resource constraints and compliance requirements. It is not practical or feasible to eliminate all risks. Regulatory requirements must be considered, but are inputs to the business considerations. The board of directors does not define information security, but provides direction in support of the business goals and objectives.

QUESTION 34
What is the MOST important factor in the successful implementation of an enterprise wide information security program?
A. Realistic budget estimates
B. Security awareness
C. Support of senior management
D. Recalculation of the work factor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Without the support of senior management, an information security program has little chance of survival. A company’s leadership group, more than any other group, will more successfully drive the program. Their authoritative position in the company is a key factor. Budget approval, resource commitments, and companywide participation also require the buy-in from senior management. Senior management is responsible for providing an adequate budget and the necessary resources. Security awareness is important, but not the most important factor. Recalculation of the work factor is a part of risk management.

QUESTION 35
What is the MAIN risk when there is no user management representation on the Information Security Steering Committee?
A. Functional requirements are not adequately considered.
B. User training programs may be inadequate.
C. Budgets allocated to business units are not appropriate.
D. Information security plans are not aligned with business requirements
352-001 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The steering committee controls the execution of the information security strategy, according to the needs of the organization, and decides on the project prioritization and the execution plan. User management is an important group that should be represented to ensure that the information security plans are aligned with the business needs. Functional requirements and user training programs are considered to be part of the projects but are not the main risks. The steering committee does not approve budgets for business units.

QUESTION 36
The MAIN reason for having the Information Security Steering Committee review a new security controls implementation plan is to ensure that:
A. the plan aligns with the organization’s business plan.
B. departmental budgets are allocated appropriately to pay for the plan.
C. regulatory oversight requirements are met.
D. the impact of the plan on the business units is reduced.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The steering committee controls the execution of the information security strategy according to the needs of the organization and decides on the project prioritization and the execution plan. The steering committee does not allocate department budgets for business units. While ensuring that regulatory oversight requirements are met could be a consideration, it is not the main reason for the review. Reducing the impact on the business units is a secondary concern but not the main reason for the review.

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QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic locations. The service locations may change. You must minimize the cost of communication between services. You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

70-534 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands. You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
You are designing an Azure web application. All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:

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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of least privilege. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer area.
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QUESTION 16 The chief operations officer (COO) has questioned the need for end-user training. Which of the following is the most effective response?
A.Indicate that you will not be responsible for the next virus outbreak.
B.Remind the CEO about the last virus attack and the expense incurred.
C.Explain that the cost of end-user training is a fraction of the cost of the last security breach caused by end users.
D.Provide statistics that definitively show how end-user training reduces the likelihood of security breaches on the corporate network.
70-534 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 17 Consider the following sequence:
user1@zeppelin:/public$ su –
root@zeppelin:# chmod 1777 /public
root@zeppelin:# exit
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of this command?
A.Only the root user can create and delete files in the /public directory.
B.All users can create, delete and read files in the /public directory, but only root has execute permissions.
C.All users can create and read files in the /public directory, but only root can delete another user’s file.
D.Any user can create files in the / directory, but no user can delete a file in this directory unless root permissions are obtained.
Answer: C

QUESTION 18 What is the first step of a gap analysis?
A.Scan the firewall.
B.Review antivirus settings.
C.Review the security policy.
D.Review intrusion-detection software settings.
70-534 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 19 Consider the following firewall rules: Incoming traffic:
TCP Port 25
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
Outgoing traffic:
TCP Ports 1024 through 65,535 to port 80: Denied
TCP Port 80: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied

UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
All company production servers reside behind the corporate firewall. However, you discover that the Web server performance is very low. After sniffing the traffic to the Web server, you learn that the Web server is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service attack in which millions of ping packets are being directed at the server. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for this situation?
A.There is a flaw in the firewall rule set.
B.The firewall is not configured to block ICMP packets generated by the ping command.
C.The attack is originating from a wireless access point (WAP) connected to the corporate network.
D.The attack is originating from a Web server that has not been properly updated, and which has been infected with a Trojan horse.
Answer: C

QUESTION 20 A Linux system running Apache Server has received millions of SYN packets that it can no longer respond to, because the client’s operator is maliciously withholding thenecessary reply packet. What is the most common solution for this problem?
A.Implement SSL.
B.Implement SYN cookie support.
C.Upgrade the TCP/IP stack with new software.
D.Upgrade the operating system to support IPsec.
70-534 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 21 Two routers in your company network require a firmware upgrade. Which of the following upgrade strategies will reduce downtime?
A.Conducting the upgrade while the routers are still running
B.Upgrading the routers using the latest upgrade software
C.Conducting the upgrade after rebooting the router
D.Upgrading the routers after business hours
Answer: D

QUESTION 22 You and your team have created a security policy document that is 120 pages long. Which of the following techniques will help ensure that upper-level managers read the essential policy elements?
A.Including a sign-off sheet
B.Including an executive summary
C.Using bold type to emphasize essential elements
D.Using italic type to emphasize essential elements
70-534 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 23 Which of the following is a main function of a company’s information security policy?
A.It obligates the IT department to basic services.
B.It defines basic responsibilities for all stakeholders.
C.It defines the responsibilities of employees and managers.
D.It defines basic responsibilities for executive management.
Answer: B

QUESTION 24 After consulting with the IT department, you have determined that a particular security solution is quite effective for protecting a particular resource, but not necessary due to the expense. Which of the following was conducted to enable this conclusion?
A.Risk analysis
B.Cost-to-benefit analysis
C.Physical security analysis
D.Resource priority analysis
70-534 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 25 You want to learn more about a security breach that was recently discovered in a Windows server. Which organization should you consult?
A.ISO
B.SANS
C.CERT
D.IETF
Answer: C

QUESTION 26 Your supervisor asks you to recommend a firewall. The firewall must provide the following services: The ability to filter specific traffic types (e.g., HTTP, SIP, POP3) User authenticationWeb page caching for later use Which type of firewall would you recommend?
A.Proxy
B.Stateful
C.Packet filter
D.Circuit-based
70-534 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 27 Which type of firewall provides a DMZ?
A.Dual-homed
B.Router-based
C.Single-homed
D.Screened-subnet
Answer: D

QUESTION 28 Company employees have noticed that the quality of voice calls on their Cisco IP phones is greatly reduced at various times during the day. After investigating the problem, you notice that the times when voice quality is reduced coincides with heavy e-mail traffic. Which of the following can you implement on the firewall to alleviate this problem?
A.Stateful inspection
B.Quality of Service (QoS)
C.Network address translation (NAT)
D.Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
70-534 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 29  Consider the following firewall rules:
Incoming traffic:
TCP Port 25: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
Outgoing traffic:
TCP Ports 1024 through 65,535 to port 80: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
All company production servers reside behind the corporate firewall. However, you discover that the Web server performance is very low. After sniffing the traffic to the Web server, you learn that the Web server is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service attack in which millions of ping packets are being directed at the server. Which is the most plausible explanation for this situation?
A.There is a flaw in the firewall rule set.
B.The attack is being conducted from an internal host.
C.The Web server has been infected with a Trojan horse.
D.The firewall is not configured to block ICMP packets generated by the ping command.
Answer: B

QUESTION 30 A packet is being sent from one computer to the next. This packet is being processed by an application designed to encrypt sensitive data. One of the duties of this application is to ensure that a packet has not been altered by an intruder. Which type of encryption is this application most likely to use to achieve this goal?
A.One-time pad

B.Hash encryption
C.Symmetric-key encryption
D.Asymmetric-key encryption
70-534 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 31 Which of the following is responsible for encrypting the data packets encapsulated in an SSL-enabled HTTP session?
A.One-way encryption B.One
time pad (OTP) C.Symmetric
key encryption D.Asymmetric
key encryption Answer: C

QUESTION 32 You have used an application called PGP to protect the contents of an e-mail message. Which technology is used to encrypt the key that protects the data in the e-mail message?
A.Symmetric-key encryption
B.Asymmetric-key encryption
C.Diffie-Hellman key exchange protocol
D.Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
70-534 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 33 Your Web browser issued a warning message that a certificate has not been signed by a recognized authority. This fact indicates that:
A.an attack is in progress.
B.the ensuing session will not be encrypted.
C.the Certificate Authority (CA) has revoked the certificate.
D.the browser does not recognize the Certificate Authority (CA).
Answer: D

QUESTION 34 A device that provides voice and fax services between your local LAN and the Internet has been installed in the DMZ of your network. However, you cannot send or receive faxes. Which of the following steps is most likely going to solve this problem, while still protecting your network resources?
A.Configure the fax device to use the T.441 protocol.
B.Configure your firewall to allow the T.38 protocol.
C.Move the fax device off the firewall and make it directly accessible to the Internet.
D.Configure your firewall to forward all UDP-based packets from the Internet to the company PBX.
70-534 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 35 Employee computers have been attacked repeatedly. The attacker appears to be working internally, and has been able to scan internal systems for weaknesses. Which of the following will best help you stop these attacks?
A.Installing Webcams
B.Upgrading antivirus software
C.Installing desktop firewalls
D.Establishing a regular auditing schedule
Answer: C

QUESTION 36 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
70-534 exam 
Answer: A

QUESTION 37 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer:A

QUESTION 38 Which of the following is true when Cognos 8 gateway receives a request?
A. Requests are passed directly to the Cognos content manager.
B. A connection is created to the database server.
C. The requests are directed to Access Manager.
D. Passwords are encrypted to ensure security.
70-534 dumps 
Answer: D

QUESTION 39 Which of the following is true about Cognos 8 dispatchers?
A. Requests can be routed to specific dispatchers based on packages or user group requirements.
B. Each Java Virtual Machine (JVM) can have multiple dispatchers.
C. The administrator must register a new dispatcher manually.
D. Dispatchers cannot be managed as part of a folder set.
Answer: A

QUESTION 40 What is a portlet?
A. The routing subsection of a listener port.
B. A mechanism for displaying web content as part of a portal page.
C. A credential that is stored on the Web server.
D. A credential that is stored for the session only.
70-534 pdf
Answer: B

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1.Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC Spoofing attacks?
A. Configure Port Security on the switch
B. Configure Port Recon on the switch C.
Configure Switch Mapping
D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch
300-170 exam Answer: A
2.Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database. What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database.?
A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target system
B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users from gaining access
C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of the database
D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target system
Answer: D
3.This IDS defeating technique works by splitting a datagram (or packet) into multiple fragments and the IDS will not spot the true nature of the fully assembled datagram. The datagram is not reassembled until it reaches its final destination. It would be a processor-intensive task for IDS to reassemble all fragments itself, and on a busy system the packet will slip through the IDS onto the network. What is this technique called?
A. IP Routing or Packet Dropping
B. IDS Spoofing or Session Assembly
C. IP Fragmentation or Session Splicing
D. IP Splicing or Packet Reassembly
300-170 dumps Answer: C
4.If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of business, they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person hired, and they will be in the organization. How would you prevent such type of attacks?

A. It is impossible to block these attacks
B. Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you
C. Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them
D. Investigate their social networking profiles
Answer: C
5.This type of Port Scanning technique splits TCP header into several packets so that the packet filters are not able to detect what the packets intends to do.
A. UDP Scanning
B. IP Fragment Scanning
C. Inverse TCP flag scanning
D. ACK flag scanning
300-170 pdf Answer: B
6.Joel and her team have been going through tons of garbage, recycled paper, and other rubbish in order to find some information about the target they are attempting to penetrate. How would you call this type of activity?
A. Dumpster Diving
B. Scanning
C. CI Gathering
D. Garbage Scooping
Answer: A
7.Anonymizer sites access the Internet on your behalf, protecting your personal information from disclosure. An anonymizer protects all of your computer’s identifying information while it surfs for you,
 enabling you to remain at least one step removed from the sites you visit. You can visit Web sites without allowing anyone to gather information on sites visited by you. Services that provide anonymity disable pop-up windows and cookies, and conceal visitor’s IP address. These services typically use a proxy server to process each HTTP request. When the user requests a Web page by clicking a hyperlink or typing a URL into their browser, the service retrieves and displays the information using its own server. The remote server (where the requested Web page resides) receives information on the anonymous Web surfing service in place of your information. In which situations would you want to use anonymizer? (Select 3 answers)
A. Increase your Web browsing bandwidth speed by using Anonymizer
B. To protect your privacy and Identity on the Internet
C. To bypass blocking applications that would prevent access to Web sites or parts of sites that you want to visit.
D. Post negative entries in blogs without revealing your IP identity
Answer: B,C,D
8.What type of attack is shown in the following diagram?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) Attack
B. Session Hijacking Attack
C. SSL Spoofing Attack
D. Identity Stealing Attack
300-170 vce Answer: A
9.Jack Hacker wants to break into Brown Co.’s computers and obtain their secret double fudge cookie recipe. Jack calls Jane, an accountant at Brown Co., pretending to be an administrator from Brown Co. Jack tells Jane that there has been a problem with some accounts and asks her to verify her password with him ”just to double check our records.” Jane does not suspect anything amiss, and parts with her password. Jack can now access Brown Co.’s computers with a valid user name and password, to steal the cookie recipe. What kind of attack is being illustrated here?
A. Reverse Psychology
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Social Engineering

D. Spoofing Identity
E. Faking Identity
Answer: C
10.How do you defend against ARP Spoofing?
A. Use ARPWALL system and block ARP spoofing attacks
B. Tune IDS Sensors to look for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
C. Use private VLANS
D. Place static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
Answer: B,C,D
11.TCP SYN Flood attack uses the three-way handshake mechanism.
1. An attacker at system A sends a SYN packet to victim at system B.
2. System B sends a SYN/ACK packet to victim A.
3. As a normal three-way handshake mechanism system A should send an ACK packet to system B, however, system A does not send an ACK packet to system B. In this case client B is waiting for an ACK packet from client A. This status of client B is called
A. “half-closed”
B. “half open”
C. “full-open”
D. “xmas-open”
300-170 exam Answer: B
12.Lori is a Certified Ethical Hacker as well as a Certified Hacking Forensics Investigator working as an IT security consultant. Lori has been hired on by Kiley Innovators, a large marketing firm that recently underwent a string of thefts and corporate espionage incidents. Lori is told that a rival marketing company came out with an exact duplicate product right before Kiley Innovators was about to release it. The executive team believes that an employee is leaking information to the rival company. Lori questions all employees, reviews server logs, and firewall logs; after which she finds nothing. Lori is then given permission to search through the corporate email system. She searches by email being sent to and sent from the rival marketing company. She finds one employee that appears to be sending very large email to this other marketing company, even though they should have no reason to be communicating with them. Lori tracks down the actual emails sent and upon opening them, only finds picture files attached to them. These files seem perfectly harmless, usually containing some kind of joke. Lori decides to use some special software to further examine the pictures and finds that each one had hidden text that was stored in each picture. What technique was used by the Kiley Innovators employee to send information to the rival marketing company?
A. The Kiley Innovators employee used cryptography to hide the information in the emails sent
B. The method used by the employee to hide the information was logical watermarking
C. The employee used steganography to hide information in the picture attachments
D. By using the pictures to hide information, the employee utilized picture fuzzing

Answer: C
13.You run nmap port Scan on 10.0.0.5 and attempt to gain banner/server information from services running on ports 21, 110 and 123.
Here is the output of your scan results: Which of the following nmap command did you run?
A. nmap -A -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
B. nmap -F -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
C. nmap -O -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
D. nmap -T -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
300-170 dumps Answer: C
14.How do you defend against Privilege Escalation?
A. Use encryption to protect sensitive data
B. Restrict the interactive logon privileges
C. Run services as unprivileged accounts
D. Allow security settings of IE to zero or Low
E. Run users and applications on the least privileges
Answer: A,B,C,E
15.What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Source Quench
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded
D. Unknown Type
300-170 pdf Answer: C
16.You are the security administrator of Jaco Banking Systems located in Boston. You are setting up banking website authentication system. Instead of issuing banking customer with a single password, you give them a printed list of 100 unique passwords. Each time the customer needs to log into the e-banking system website, the customer enters the next password on the list. If someone sees them type the password using shoulder surfing, MiTM or keyloggers, then no damage is done because the password will not be accepted a second time. Once the list of 100 passwords is almost finished, the system automatically sends out a new password list
  by encrypted e-mail to the customer. You are confident that this security implementation will protect the customer from password abuse. Two months later, a group of hackers called “HackJihad” found a way to access the one-time password list issued to customers of Jaco Banking Systems. The hackers set up a fake website and used phishing attacks to direct ignorant customers to it. The fake website asked users for their e-banking username and password, and the next unused entry from their one-time password sheet. The hackers collected 200 customer’s username/passwords this way. They transferred money from the customer’s bank account to various offshore accounts.
Your decision of password policy implementation has cost the bank with USD 925,000 to hackers. You immediately shut down the e-banking website while figuring out the next best security solution What effective security solution will you recommend in this case?
A. Implement Biometrics based password authentication system. Record the customers face image to the authentication database
B. Configure your firewall to block logon attempts of more than three wrong tries
C. Enable a complex password policy of 20 characters and ask the user to change the password immediately after they logon and do not store password histories
D. Implement RSA SecureID based authentication system
300-170 vce Answer: D

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QUESTION 116
When redistributing OSPF into RIP V2 what must be taken into consideration for the redistribution to take place?
A. The metric must be set accordingly for RIP
B. The subnet mask must be removed from the OSPF route
C. You must divide the cost of the OSPF route by three
D. The router must be configured as an ASBR
74-678 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
What is wrong with the following filter configuration from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
RTR-B# configure filter
RTR-B>config>filter# ip-filter 1 create
RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter$ entry 1 create
RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry$ match src-ip 172.2.0.0/16 RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry# action drop
RTR-B# configure router interface toRTR-A
RTR-B>config>router>if# egress
RTR-B>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1
A. There is nothing wrong with this filter
B. The filter should be applied to the ingress and not the egress.
C. The mask cannot be a “/” value, it must be in dotted decimal.
D. All traffic is being blocked
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
When configuring a filter, where should the most explicit entries be placed?
A. At the bottom
B. In the middle
C. At the top
D. It does not matter where they are placed.
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
From the list below identify two matching criteria supported for IP filters on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR: (Choose two)
A. DSCP marking
B. Class of Service Marking
C. DSAP marking
D. ICMP type
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 120
What command is used on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to define the default action to be taken if a packet does not match any entry in an IP filter?
A. config>filter# default-action XXX
B. config>filter>ip-filter# default-action XXX
C. config>filter# default-mode XXX
D. config>filter>ip-filter# default-mode XXX
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
What is another term to describe the default route for a client?
A. Black hole
B. Default gateway
C. Gateway path
D. Proxy ARP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
Which of the following is not one of the MT topologies defined for IS-IS?
A. IPv4 In-Band Management
B. IPv6 Routing
C. IPv4 Multicast Routing
D. IPv6 Multicast Routing
E. All of the above are MT topologies defined for IS-IS.
74-678 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 123
Click the exhibit button
The 192 168 3.0/24 network is learned on router R1 via IS-IS Given the OSPF configuration shown, and assuming that the OSPF adjacency between routers R1 and R3 is up, why is the 192 168.3.0/24 route not in router R3’s route table? (Choose two)
A. The route policy should be applied as in import policy
B. The no-redistribute-external command is used on router R1
C. The route policy is incorrect. It should say “from protocol ISIS” rather than “from protocol direct”.
D. It is not possible to be an ASBR and an NSSA. The ASBR configuration should be removed.
E. The interface between routers R1 and R3 needs to be in OSPF area 0 rather than OSPF area 1
because a backbone area must always exist.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 124
Which of the following best describes the actions after an IS-IS router receives on a broadcast interface, a newer LSP than the one in its database?
A. The router sends a copy of the LSP from its database to its neighbor
B. The router updates its database with the LSP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.
C. The router updates its database with the LSP, acknowledges the LSP with a PSNP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.
D. The router updates its database with the LSP and acknowledges it with a PSNP.

74-678 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that OSPFv3 is properly configured on all routers and that R4 advertises its system prefix into Area 0. Which of the following statements best describes how R5 learns R4’s IPv6 system prefix?
A. With a Router LSA originated by R1
B. With a Router LSA originated by R5
C. With a Router LSA originated by R4
D. With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R1
E. With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R5
F. With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Click the exhibit button.
192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3. Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?
A. Add the “originate-default-route” option in the NSSA area configuration on router R3
B. Add the “summaries” option to the NSSA area configuration on router R1
C. Make a static route on router R1 to 192.168.3.1
D. Make a default route on router R2
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which of the statements about the output in the exhibit is FALSE?
A. The system interface is configured with IPv6 address 2001DB8 1:100:1/128
B. All interfaces are configured for IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Interface “toR2” is configured with a globally routed IPv6 address.
D. Interface “toR3” is not configured for IPv6 with a global IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: B

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Question No : 21 Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
300-075 exam Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 22  What happens when a user logs in using the Cisco Extension Mobility Service on a device for which the user has no user device profile?
A. The Extension Mobility log in fails.
B. The device takes on the default device profile for its type.
C. The user can log in but does not have access to any features, soft key templates, or button templates.
D. The device uses the first device profile assigned to the user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: B
Question No : 23  When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
300-075 dump Answer: A
Question No : 24  Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.
Answer: A,C
Question No : 25  Which two statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility are true? (Choose two.)
A. After an autogenerated device profile is created, you can associate it with one or more users.
B. An autogenerated device profiles can be loaded on a device at the same time as a user profile.
C. A device can adopt a user profile even when no user is logged in.
D. A device profile has most of the same attributes as a physical device.
E. Devices can be configured to allow more than one user to be logged in at the same time.
300-075 pdf Answer: B,C
Reference:
Question No : 26  Which component is needed to set up SAF CCD?
A. SAF-enabled H.323 intercluster (gatekeeper controlled) trunk
B. SAF forwarders on Cisco routers
C. Cisco Unified Communications cluster
D. SAF-enabled H.225 trunk
Answer: B
Question No : 27  Which option is known as the location attribute that the global dialplan replication uses to advertise its dial plan information?
A. location controller
B. route pattern
C. route string
D. URI
300-075 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class First
{
string name;
public:
First() {
name = “Alan”;
}
void Print(){
cout << name;
}
};
int main()
{
First ob1,*ob2;
ob2 = new First();

ob1.Print();
ob2?>Print();
}
A. Garbage value
B. It prints: AlanAlan
C. It prints: Alan
D. It prints: Al
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
What will the variable “age” be in class B?
class A {
int x;
protected:
int y;
public:
int age;
};
class B : protected A {
string name;
public:
void Print() {
cout << name << age;
}

};
A. public
B. private
C. protected
D. None of these
300-075 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 30
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
const int x=20;
const int *ptr;
ptr = &x;
*ptr = 10;
cout<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 20
B. It prints: 10
C. Compilation error at line 8
D. It prints address of ptr
Answer: C
QUESTION: 31
Scenario
Additional Information
Chief Executive Officer (CEO): He started the company 25 years ago and knows his job very well. He injured his leg two years ago which has restricted his visits to the engineering area. As CEO he has an overall perspective of the business strategic requirements and the authority to commit resources as required. Marketing Director: She has been with the company for three years, following a
successful career with a publicity company. She has the ability to represent the needs of the business, particularly as this is a marketing project. She has the authority to commit the annual business marketing budget, from which the project will be funded, as she sees appropriate. She will be responsible for monitoring the expected benefits of the calendar, in particular the improvement of
the company’s image. Engineering Manager: He has been responsible for many engineering innovations in the company and is still as keen and energetic as the day he started. VVhilst he will not be part of the project team, his staff will feature in the photos for the
promotional calendar. Central Records: This group of five staff looks after all company records and document control. They now maintain all project files. Bright Lights: This is the local office supplies company. It supplies all the stationery and office equipment needs of the company and will supply the stationery for this project. Portraits ltd: This is a professional photographic company with a number of excellent photographers and a history of successful work. This company has been selected to take the photos for the company calendar. It has yet be decided which of the photographers to use. Which 2 statements explain why the Sales Manager should be appointed as a Senior User for this project?
A. He joined the company last year with huge enthusiasm.
B. He would like to move into the Marketing department in the future and sees this as an opportunity to work closely with the Marketing Director.
C. The launch of a company calendar will impact the Sales department.
D. He reports directly to the Marketing Director.
E. He is able to represent current and prospective customer interests.

300-075 dump Answer: C, E
QUESTION: 32
Scenario
Additional Information
Chief Executive Officer (CEO): He started the company 25 years ago and knows his job very well. He injured his leg two years ago which has restricted his visits to the engineering area. As CEO he has an overall perspective of the business strategic requirements and the authority to commit resources as required. Marketing Director: She has been with the company for three years, following a
successful career with a publicity company. She has the ability to represent the needs of the business, particularly as this is a marketing project. She has the authority to commit the annual business marketing budget, from which the project will be funded, as she sees appropriate. She will be responsible for monitoring the expected benefits of the calendar, in particular the improvement of
the company’s image. Engineering Manager: He has been responsible for many engineering innovations in the company and is still as keen and energetic as the day he started. VVhilst he will not be part of the project team, his staff will feature in the photos for the
promotional calendar. Central Records: This group of five staff looks after all company records and document control. They now maintain all project files. Bright Lights: This is the local office supplies company. It supplies all the stationery and office equipment needs of the company and will supply the stationery for this project. Portraits ltd: This is a professional photographic company with a number of excellent photographers and a history of successful work. This company has been selected to take the photos for the company calendar. It has yet be decided which of the photographers to use. Which 2 statements explain why the Purchasing Manager should be appointed as a Senior Supplier for this project?
A. He is responsible for the organization’s procurement activates.
B. He is responsible for the performance of supplier contracts.
C. He was an engineer and worked in that area before taking up his current position.
D. He can influence the external supplier’s Business Case.
E. He is not appropriate for the role of Executive or Senior User.
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Q&As: 95

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QUESTION: 15
Scenario:
Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question You are serving as the Lead Architect for the enterprise architecture team at the prime contractor for the Dreadnought Unmanned Aircraft System program. Over the course of this contract, the company has grown rapidly by acquisition and has inherited numerous different procurement processes and related IT systems. The decision has been made to consolidate and reduce redundant procurement processes and systems. The CEO has announced that the company will seek to leverage higher volume discounts and lower related IT support costs by instituting a preferred supplier program. TOGAF 9 Is used for internal Enterprise Architecture activities, with an iterative approach for executing Architecture Development Method (ADM) projects. At present, there are no particularly useful architectural assets related to this initiative, so all assets need to be acquired and customized or created from scratch. The company prefers to implement commercial off the shelf package applications with little customization. The CIO, who is the project sponsor, has stated that she is not concerned about preserving existing processes or systems. The architect-re development project has put in place Its Architecture Capability for this project and has started a number of iteration cycles to develop the Architecture. Some tasks to address concerns related to the Business Architecture have been completed. The next immediate task is to address the Information Systems Architectures. The Information Systems Architectures must address stakeholder concerns such as:
1. Which procurement-related business processes are supported by zero, one, or many existing applications?
2. What non-procurement applications will need to be integrated with any new procurement applications?
3. What data will need to be shared?
Refer to the Scenario
[Note: You may need to refer to TOGAF 9 Chapter 35 in order to answer this question.] You have been asked to identify the most appropriate catalogs, matrices, and diagrams for this situation. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. in the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture using a Data Entity/Data Component catalog. In the later Iterations of the Architecture Definition, you would describe the Target Application Architecture using Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix.
B. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with an Application and User Location diagram and a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.
C. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Business Function matrix and a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.
D. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a Technology Portfolio catalog, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data diagram. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with a System/Technology matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Dissemination diagram.
70-695 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Which of the following statements regarding RSVP-TE is FALSE?
A. RSVP-TE operates in a downstream unsolicited label advertisement mode.
B. RSVP-TE makes use of ordered control mode.
C. RSVP-TE is an MPLS signaling protocol, based on the resource reservation protocol.
D. RSVP-TE enables the establishment of explicitly routed LSPs that can be automatically routed away from network failures
E. RSVP-TE supports explicitly routed LSPs using either loose or strict route definitions.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Click on the exhibit button below:
Consider the following:
– Router R2 is an ABR in OSPF Areas 0 and 1.
– Router R2 advertises the aggregate prefix 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1.
– Router R1 in Area 0 generates LDP labels for FECs 10.10.102/31 and 10.10.10.4/31 Router R3 in Area 1
places these FECs in its LIB, but it does not place them in its LFIB. What can you do on router R3 to make it populate these labels in its LFIB?
A. Disable route summarization on router R3

B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match
C. Create an import policy to accept these FECs
D. Disable LDP exact match on the specified FECs
70-695 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
An LSP path is configured as follows:
– Shared-explicit reservation style
– Make-before-break (MBB) enabled
– 500Mpbs bandwidth reserved on a 1Gbps link
With 100Mbps of unreserved bandwidth remaining, the operator increases the LSP-path’s bandwidth reservation to 900Mbps. What happens to the existing LSP?
A. CSPF looks for the delta bandwidth, taking down the first path if necessary.
B. CSPF looks for the delta bandwidth, implementing make-before-break.
C. After 5 failed attempts to find the bandwidth requested, the head end disables the LSP.
D. CSPF looks for the entire bandwidth requested, implementing MBB.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Which approach to LSP path diversity provides the most control, but the least flexibility?
A. Administrative Groups
B. Shared Risk Link Groups
C. Strict hop LSP paths
D. Fast reroute
70-695 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION NO: 60
Which two statements are true about OnTimer triggers? (Choose two.)
A. They only run when the application is idle.
B. OnTimer triggers are configured in the File Options dialog.
C. Different OnTimer scripts can be installed in different windows.
D. Days and times can be specified when the OnTimer script activates.
210-451 exam Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
A file has the following script specified for OnLastWindowClose:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Exit Script [Result; False]
Commit Records/Requests [No dialog]
Assume the Layout Setup dialog for the current layout is set to Save record changes automatically. When a user attempts to close the file, what will be the result?
A. The file will close and the current record will be committed.
B. The file will close and the current record will not be committed.
C. The file will remain open and the current record will be committed.
D. The file will remain open and the current record will not be committed
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
Which statement is true regarding layout themes in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Changing a layout theme may reposition a field on the layout to align it to the theme’s default grid
B. Objects with custom styles applied using the Inspector will be unaffected by changing a layout’s theme.
C. A layout theme determines the padding space (vertical and horizontal) surrounding content for displaying text and container fields.
D. Clicking an object while holding the Command (Mac OS X) or Control (Windows) key will reset the default object style for any new objects of the same type on that layout.
210-451 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which statement is true regarding applying object styles in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. The Format Painter will only apply styles to objects on the same layout.
B. The Format Painter cannot be used to apply the style of one layout part to another.
C. The Format Painter tool can only apply styles associated with the Normal State of an object.
D. The Copy Object Style and Paste Object Style buttons of the Inspector will only work among
layouts of the same file.
E. Holding down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS X) key while clicking the Copy Object Style button in Inspector will only copy the styles for the currently selected object state.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Which two statements are true regarding object styles in FileMaker 12? (Choose two.)
A. A text box will not display Hover state styles.
B. The Alternate Record state is unique to the Body part.
C. Only the Normal State is recognized for object styles in FileMaker Go 12.
D. Only the Normal State will function in Table View for fields in the Body part.
E. Hover state styles for a field will supersede Conditional Formatting styles when a mouse pointer is hovering over the field.
210-451 pdf Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Which two statements are true if a file is configured with an OnWindowOpen script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. The script will be triggered when a file is first opened.
B. A script parameter can be passed to name the new window.
C. The script will not be triggered when a Dialog Window (Modal) is opened.
D. The script will be triggered when a snapshot link file is used to open the file.
E. The action of opening the window can be canceled by use of the Exit Script [False] script step
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 66
Which two statements are true about script triggers? (Choose two.)
A. Layout script triggers can be activated by scripts.
B. An object can have only one script trigger associated with it.
C. Script triggers can only be assigned to field objects and tab controls.
D. Object script triggers will not activate if the layout is set to Table view.
E. A script trigger can be set to activate when the user switches between tab panels.
210-451 vce Answer: A,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67
Assume the user has full privileges to view and modify all data in the file. Which two statements
are true in this situation? (Choose two.)
A. The Name Last field is in the Header part.
B. The user will be able to edit the contents of z_TempText in Table view.
C. If viewed as a form in Browse mode, Quick Find will ignore the data in the Name Last field.
D. The Name Last field will be excluded from the list of available fields in the Sort Records… dialog
for the Current Layout
E. The Activities portal, Name Last field, and z_TempText field are within the page boundary and
thus will be included when printed in Form view.
F. The script step insert Text [Select; Customer:: z_TempText; “Complete”] will result in Error 102
(“Field is missing”) and z_TempText will be empty

Explanation:
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 68
Given the following function:
Substitute (myText ; [“abc” ; “XYZ”] ; [ “XY2” ; “abc”])
If the field myText contains “abc-xyz”, what is the result?
A. abc-abc
B. abc-xyz
C. XYZ-abc
D. XYZ-xyz
210-451 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
What can be done with an ExecuteSOL calculation function?
A. Count the number of unique values in a field from a set of related records.
B. Populate a field in a set of related records with the result of a calculation function.
C. Find the number of records in the current found set that match certain query criteria.
D. Insert a new record into a table and populate it with values from global script variables.
210-451 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
Given a custom function created in FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced defined as Explode (str):
What is the result of Explode (“Bob”)?
A. BoB
B.
BBoBo
C. BBBo
D. BBoBob
E. BobBoB
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Q&As: 254

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QUESTION 24
Which threat-detection feature is used to keep track of suspected attackers who create connections to too many hosts or ports?
A. complex threat detection
B. scanning threat detection
C. basic threat detection
D. advanced threat detection
300-206 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
What is the default behavior of an access list on the Cisco ASA security appliance?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access-list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. An access group must be configured before the access list will take effect for traffic control.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which three commands can be used to harden a switch? (Choose three.)
A. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
B. switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping
C. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 900
D. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree guard root
E. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard disable
F. switch(config-if)# no cdp enable
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
On the STP network as shown in the figure, which device may be the blocked port belong to?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
QinQ provides a simplified Layer 2 VPN tunnel.
A. True
B. False
300-206 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which statements about QinQ are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.
B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the
VLANs on its private network.
C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to
be modified.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Some vendors set the TPID value in the outer VLAN tag of QinQ packets to the non-protocol value.
To be compatible with these vendors’ devices, the TPID value on Huawei switches is adjustable.
Which is the default value of the TPID value on Huawei switches?
A. 0x9200
B. 0x9100
C. 0x8200
D. 0x8100
300-206 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which types of interfaces can be configured with selective QinQ? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Access interface
B. Trunk interface
C. Hybrid interface
D. dot1q-tunnel interface
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
The STP protocol can prevent broadcast storms caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
300-206 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The STP protocol cannot prevent MAC address table flapping caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which are the port roles defined in STP?
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. All of the above
300-206 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
How many port states are defined by STP?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Each STP switch has a unique switch ID. Which two entries does the switch ID contain?
A. Two-byte switch priority
B. Six-byte MAC address
C. Two-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
D. Six-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
300-206 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which statements about the MUX VLAN configuration are true? (Select 2 Answers)
[Quidway]vlan 10

[Quidway-vlan10]mux-vlan
[Quidway-vlan10]subordinate group 11
[Quidway-vlan10]subordinate separate 12
A. VLAN 10 is the principal VLAN
B. VLAN 11 is the principal VLAN
C. VLAN 12 is the subordinate separate VLAN
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 40
When configuring VLAN mapping, you must set the priority of outer VLAN ID.
A. True
B. False
300-206 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
The port isolation function can isolate the ports on the same switch.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Which statements are false?
A. The VLAN mapping function is usually configured on the edge node of a public network.
B. The VLAN mapping function can save VLAN resources on a public network.
C. VLAN mapping allows private networks on different VLANs to communicate with each other over the
ISP network.
D. VLAN mapping allows only the private networks on the same VLAN to communicate with each other.
300-206 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which statements about VLAN are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The VLAN improves network security. Users on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.
B. The VLAN improves network processing efficiency. Users on different VLANs are separated from each
other. Therefore, the size of a broadcast domain is reduced.
C. Layer 2 forwarding is only based on destination MAC addresses, and is irrelevant to VLAN
configuration.
D. The VLAN technology is a management method that controls the communication between terminals.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 44
Which statements about the VLAN on S series switches are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The VLAN IDs on the switch range from 1 to 4090.
B. The switch has a default VLAN.
C. The priority value in the VLAN tag can be changed on the switch.
D. A VLAN tag contains one byte.
300-206 pdf 
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 37
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources

210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have
replaced?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service portfolio management
D. Service catalogue management
210-260 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a
set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
A. The service level management
B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all
services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C

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