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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-900.aspx
This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are
provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling
or purchasing cloud-based solutions and services or who have some involvement with cloud-based solutions and services, as well as
those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational level knowledge around cloud services.
Technical IT experience is not required however some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.

pass4itsure az-900 exam Skills measured

  • Understand cloud concepts (15-20%)
  • Understand core Azure services (30-35%)
  • Understand security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
  • Understand Azure pricing and support (25-30%)

The latest Microsoft Azure az-900 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company plans to purchase Azure.
The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers
by phone or email.
You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement.
Solution: Recommend a Basic support plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

 

QUESTION 2
Your company plans to deploy several web servers and several database servers to Azure.
You need to recommend an Azure solution to limit the types of connections from the web servers to the database
servers.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. network security groups (NSGs)
B. Azure Service Bus
C. a local network gateway
D. a route filter
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Linux and has the Azure CLI tools installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple
subscriptions.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Management groups
C. Azure policies
D. Azure App Service plans
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Your company plans to deploy an Artificial Intelligence (AI) solution in Azure.
What should the company use to build, test, and deploy predictive analytics solutions?
A. Azure Logic Apps
B. Azure Machine Learning Studio
C. Azure Batch
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You plan to map a network drive from several computers that run Windows 10 to Azure Storage. You need to create a
storage solution in Azure for the planned mapped drive. What should you create?
A. an Azure SQL database
B. a virtual machine data disk
C. a Files service in a storage account
D. a Blobs service in a storage account
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that when Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users connect to Azure AD from the Internet by using
an anonymous IP address, the users are prompted automatically to change their password. Which Azure service should
you use?
A. Azure AD Connect Health
B. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
C. Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)
D. Azure AD Identity Protection
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-sign-in-risk-policy

 

QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
When planning to migrate a public website to Azure, you must plan to pay monthly usage costs.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Deploy a VPN
C. pay to transfer all the website data to Azure
D. reduce the number of connections to the website
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure environment that contains 10 virtual networks and 100 virtual machines.
You need to limit the amount of inbound traffic to all the Azure virtual networks.
What should you create?
A. one network security group (NSG)
B. 10 virtual network gateways
C. 10 Azure ExpressRoute circuits
D. one Azure firewall
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts.
Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration.
What should you recommend?
A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. Instruct all users to change their password
D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Your Azure trial account expired last week. You are now unable to create additional Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
user accounts.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. start an existing Azure virtual machine
C. access your data stored in Azure
D. access the Azure portal
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
What are two characteristics of the public cloud? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
A. dedicated hardware
B. unsecured connections
C. limited storage
D. metered pricing
E. self-service management
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have several virtual machines in an Azure subscription. You create a new subscription. The virtual machines
cannot be moved to the new subscription.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription
C. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription only if they are all in the same resource group
D. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription only if they run Windows Server 2016.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam AZ-301: Microsoft Azure Architect Design: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-301.aspx
Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translates business requirements into secure,
scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations,
including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting,
and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affect an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient
in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains

pass4itsure az-301 exam Skills measured

  • Determine workload requirements (10-15%)
  • Design for identity and security (20-25%)
  • Design a data platform solution (15-20%)
  • Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%)
  • Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%)
  • Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%)

The latest Microsoft Azure az-301 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
What should you include in the identity management strategy to support the planned changes?
A. Move all the domain controllers from corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
B. Deploy domain controllers for corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
C. Deploy a new Azure AD tenant for the authentication of new RandD projects.
D. Deploy domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest to virtual networks in Azure.
Correct Answer: B
Directory synchronization between Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and corp.fabrikam.com must not be affected by a
link failure between Azure and the onpremises network. (This requires domain controllers in Azure) Users on the on-
premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. (This requires domain
controllers on-premises)

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a data storage strategy for WebApp1. What should you include in in the recommendation?
A. an Azure SQL Database elastic pool
B. a vCore-baswl A/we SQL database
C. an Azure virtual machine that runs SQL Server
D. a fixed-size DTU AzureSQL database.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You store web access logs data in Azure Blob storage.
You plan to generate monthly reports from the access logs.
You need to recommend an automated process to upload the data to Azure SQL Database every month.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Data Migration Assistant
D. AzCopy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution lo generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager resource
deployment in your subscription What should you include in the recommend3tlon,
A. Azure Activity Log
B. Azure Monitor action groups
C. Azure Advisor
D. Azure Monitor metrics
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure subscription for used for testing and development purposes only. The subscription contains Azure
virtual machines that unmanaged, standard hard disk drives (HDD).
You need to recommend a recovery strategy for the virtual machines if an Azure region fails for a sustained period. The
recovery time objective WTO) can be up to seven days.
The solution must minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Store the disks in a Standard_LRS storage account. Configure Azure site Recovery. IF a failure occurs, initiate a
manual failure over.
B. Store the disks in a Standard_GRS storage account. Configure Azure Recovery. If a failure occurs, initiate a manual
failover.
C. Store the disks in a Standrs_LRS storage account. If a disaster occurs, manually create the virtual machines by used
Azure Rsources Mnaager templates.
D. Store the disks in a Standard_GRS storage account. If a disaster occurs, manually create the virtual machines by
Azure Resource Manager templates.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your company has several Azure subscriptions that are part of a Microsoft Enterprise Agreement?
The company\\’s compliance team creates automatic alerts by using Ware Monitor.
You need to recommend a solution to apply the alerts automatically when new subscriptions are added to the Enterprise
agreement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Pokey
B. Azure Resource Manager templates
C. Azure log Analytics alerts
D. Azure Monitor action groups
E. Azure Automation runboote
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application an on-premises
data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows Server 2016.
The
database server will not move to Azure.
A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions.
The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network
named VNET1.
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application.
Solution: Deploy the web application to a web app hosted in a Premium App Service plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment of Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the Azure AD tenant can be managed only from the computers on
your on-premises network.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD roles and administrators
B. a conditional access policy
C. Azure AD Application Proxy
D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory forest.
You discover that when users change jobs within your company, the membership of the user group are not updated. As
a result the users can resources that are no longer relevant to their job.
You plan to integrate Active Directory and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) by using Azure AD Connect
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that group owners are emailed monthly m** the group membership they
manage.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD Identify Protection
B. Tenant Restrictions
C. Azure AD access reviews
D. conditional access policies
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/governance/access-reviews-overview

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include
in the recommendation?
A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.
B. Use SQLServer transactional replication.
C. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database file to Azure Blob storage.
D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have an on-premises Active Directory forest and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All Azure AD users
are assigned a Premium P1 license.
You deploy Azure AD Connect.
Which two features are available in this environment that can reduce operational overhead for your company\\’s help
desk? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management policies
B. access reviews
C. self-service password reset
D. Microsoft Cloud App Security Conditional Access App Control
E. password writeback
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1.
You create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named ResearchUsers that contains the user accounts of all
researchers.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
The researchers must be allowed to create Azure virtual machines. The researchers must only be able to create Azure
virtual machines by using specific Azure Resource Manager templates.
Solution: Create an Azure DevOps Project. Configure the DevOps Project settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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Latest effective Cisco 500-301 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
In which ways can your Cisco WebEx account be accessed?
A. WebEx productivity tool and email client plug-ins
B. web portal, WebEx productivity tool, and email client plugins
C. web portal and email client plug-ins
D. web portal only
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which Spark endpoint works in rooms with up to 14 people?
A. Cisco IX5000
B. Cisco 8865
C. Cisco Spark Room Kit Plus
D. Cisco DX80
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which product in the Cisco Spark Flex Plan offers advanced multimodal firewall traversal for mobile and remote access
to unified communications services?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Server
C. Cisco Expressway Series Servers
D. Cisco Unified Connection Server
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which option do you select in the WebEx toolbar in Outlook to invite people to your Personal Room?
A. Select Schedule Personal Room Meeting.
B. Select Schedule WebEx Meeting
C. Select Invite and Remind
D. Select Meet Now
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which option lists the Cisco Spark Flex Support plans that offer 24×7 Cisco Technical Assistance Center phone support
with a 30 minute response time?
A. Enhanced
B. Basic
C. Enhanced and Premium
D. Premium
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which result occurs when you leave your Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting?
A. All other participant are still connected
B. All other participants are disconnected, unless another participant is made the host.
C. All other participants are still connected, even if another participant is made the host.
D. All other participants are disconnected, even if another participant is made the host
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which Spark endpoint works in rooms with up to 14 people?
A. Cisco Spark Room Kit Plus
B. Cisco DX80
C. Cisco 8865
D. Cisco IX5000
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Automatically lock your room.
C. Configure alternate hosts.
D. Change the drink image.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which devices are participants allowed to use to join WebEx Evert Center Meetings?
A. Windows and Mac computers
B. Mac computers and iPhone and iPad devices
C. Windows and Mac computers; Android, iPhone and iPad devices; and Cisco TelePresence endpoints
D. Windows and Mac computers and Android, iPhone, and iPad devices
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
In which ways can your Cisco WebEx account be accessed?
A. web portal, WebEx productivity tool, and email client plugins
B. web portal only
C. WebEx productivity tool and email client plug-ins
D. Web portal and email client plug-ins
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
What is a Spark Phone?
A. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user
B. UC VoIP phones that associate with an individual user
C. UC VoIP phones that associate with a location
D. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user or location
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which connector in a Cisco Spark Hybrid deployment can create a Cisco Spark room and WebEx Scheduled Meeting
simply by adding @Spark and @WebEx in the “location” field of the meeting window?
A. Calendar connector
B. call connector
C. management connector
D. directory connector
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which option is a way of joining the Personal Room meeting of another person using a video system?
A. Attendees must enter the user PIN and then press #.
B. Attendees must enter the meeting ID and then press #.
C. Attendees must press #.
D. Attendees must enter the user ID and then press #.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which statement about starting a Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting is true?
A. Alternate hosts can start Personal Room meetings by phone.
B. Meeting that are set to lock automatically must be started using the WebEx application.
C. The host PIN is not needed to start a meeting as long as the access code is entered.
D. You can lock or unlock meetings by phone.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which description of Spark bots is true?
A. integrations for your apps to request permission to invoke the Spark APIs on behalf of other Spark users
B. machine accounts that can automate routine tasks
C. SDKs that can automate routine tasks
D. APIs that can automate routine tasks
Correct Answer: B

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500-052 UCCXD – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/uccxd.html

  • 32% 1.0 Design a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System Deployment
  • 40% 2.0 Implement a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System
  • 28% 3.0 Operate a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System

Latest effective Cisco 500-052 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

Which action enables a contact center supervisor to access and monitor live data reports for multiple teams? 

A. Take no action, because a supervisor cannot monitor more than one team. 

B. Assign the supervisor as primary superior for one of the teams and as secondary supervisor for other relevant

teams. 

C. Assign the supervisor as primary supervisor for all the relevant teams. 

D. Add the supervisor as a member of all the relevant teams. 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 2

An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting Then the customer wants to use

a keystroke macro to insert the account number into the account number field in the agent CRM desktop application.

The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application and execute a database lookup from the CRM

database server, in order to retrieve the customer record 

Which product provides these capabilities at the lowest cost? 

A. Cisco Unified IP IVR 

B. Cisco Unified CCX Standard 

C. Cisco Unified CCX Enterprise 

D. Cisco Unified CCX Premium 

E. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced 

Correct Answer: E 

 

QUESTION 3

Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Standard? 

A. ICM steps 

B. email steps 

C. document steps 

D. database steps 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 4

Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign?

(Choose three.) 

A. Phone1 is the only mandatory field. 

B. Up to three custom fields can be added. 

C. List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported. 

D. When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created. 

E. Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis. 

Correct Answer: ACD 

 

QUESTION 5

In a Cisco Unified CCX application script, a number is read from an external database. The number must then be played

out as part of a prompt. Which Cisco Unified CCX Editor step creates a new prompt that can play out the number? 

A. Create Container Prompt 

B. Create Generated Prompt 

C. Create Language Prompt 

D. Create Conditional Prompt 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 6

In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified

Communications Manager Telephony group? 

A. CTI Ports 

B. CTI Route Point 

C. Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group 

D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 7

Which server cannot be configured during the installation phase when installing Cisco Unified Contact Center Express

on Cisco Unified Computing System servers? 

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager server 

B. DNS server 

C. NTP server 

D. SMTP server 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 8

Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? 

A. Contact Service Queue 

B. Skill Groups 

C. Resource Groups 

D. competence levels 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor

who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.) 

A. Delete a resource group. 

B. Remove a skill from a CSQ. 

C. Enable automatic work on a CSQ. 

D. Modify the skill competence level of an agent. 

E. Create a resource. 

F. Delete a skill 

Correct Answer: BCD 

 

QUESTION 10

Which tool enables partners to perform the following actions? 

a) validate all parameters (for example, number of inbound agents, number of inbound and outbound IVR ports, and so

on) of a target Cisco Unified Contact Center Express configuration 

b) recommend servers based on the validated configuration (a prerequisite for the Cisco assessment-to-quality bid

assurance process) 

A. Cisco Solution Expert Tool 

B. Cisco Unified CCX Sizing Tool 

C. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool 

D. Cisco Unified t Expert Advisor Tool 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 11

What is the maximum number of agents that Cisco Unified Contact Center Express supports when it is deployed with

Cisco Unified Communications Manager? 

A. 300 

B. 150 

C. 400 

D. 50 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

Which tool allows partners to perform these actions? 

a) validate all parameters (for example, number of inbound agents, number of inbound and outbound IVR ports, etc.) of

a target Cisco Unified CCX configuration) 

b) recommend servers based on the validated configuration (a prerequisite for the Cisco assessment-to-quality bid

assurance process) 

A. Cisco Solution Expert Tool 

B. Cisco Unified CCX Sizing Tool 

C. Cisco Unified Expert Advisor Tool 

D. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 13

What is the maximum round-trip time between Cisco Unified Contact Center Express servers in a WAN deployment? 

A. 2 ms 

B. 10 ms 

C. 50 ms 

D. 80 ms 

Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Cisco 642-889 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which type of VPN requires a full mesh of virtual circuits to provide optimal site-to-site connectivity?
A. MPLS Layer 3 VPNs
B. Layer 2 overlay VPNs
C. GET VPNs
D. peer-to-peer VPNs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which three Layer 3 VPN technologies are based on the overlay model? (Choose three.)
A. ATM virtual circuits
B. Frame Relay virtual circuits
C. GRE/IPsec
D. L2TPv3
E. MPLS Layer 3 VPNs
F. DMVPNs
Correct Answer: CDF

 

QUESTION 3
Which VPN technology uses the Group Domain of Interpretation as the keying protocol and IPsec for encryption that is often deployed over a private MPLS core network?
A. DMVPN
B. GET VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is the primary difference between 6PE and 6VPE?
A. 6VPE does not require an MPLS core.
B. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware core.
C. 6VPE provides IPv6 VPN services.
D. 6VPE tunnels IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XR router output exhibit,pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps-5

which method is being used to transport IPv6 traffic over the service provider network?
A. 6PE
B. 6VPE
C. native IPv6
D. native IPv4
E. dual stack
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which flavor of MPLS Layer 3 VPN has MPLS enabled on PE-CE links?
A. basic
B. CSC
C. inter-AS
D. AToM
E. VPLS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which MP-BGP address family must be configured to use VPLS autodiscovery in a Cisco IOS XR router?
A. address-family l2vpn vpls-vpws
B. address-family vpnv4 unicast
C. address-family ipv4 mdt
D. address-family ipv4 tunnel
E. address-family vpls vfi
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
In MPLS Layer 3 VPN implementations, what is used on the PE router to isolate potential overlapping routing information between different customers?
A. route targets
B. VRFs
C. VC IDs
D. pseudowire IDs
E. pseudowire classes
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Within the service provider IP/MPLS core network, what must be implemented to enable Layer 3 MPLS VPN services?
A. IS-IS or OSPF on all the PE and P routers
B. MP-BGP between the PE routers
C. RSVP on all the PE and P routers
D. targeted LDP between the PE routers
E. LDP between the CE and PE routers
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
In MPLS Layer 3 VPN implementations, which mechanism is used to control which routes are imported to a VRF?
A. RT
B. RD
C. VC ID
D. PW ID
E. VRF ID
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which two statements regarding Cisco 6PE operations are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The top label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
B. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
C. The top label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
D. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco IOS XR BGP configuration command is required to enable MP-BGP to carry IPv6 VPN routes?
A. address-family ipv4 unicast
B. address-family ipv6 unicast
C. address-family vpnv4 unicast
D. address-family vpnv6 unicast
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement regarding the Cisco IOS BGP configuration exhibit is correct?

pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps-13

A. None of the routers will receive IPv4 BGP routes.
B. Only the 172.16.2.1 and 172.16.3.1 neighbors will receive both VPNv4 routes and IPv4 BGP routes.
C. Only the 172.16.3.1 neighbor will receive both VPNv4 routes and IPv4 BGP routes.
D. All three neighbors (172.16.1.1, 172.16.2.1, and 172.16.3.1) will receive both VPNv4 routes and IPv4 BGP routes.
E. All three neighbors (172.16.1.1, 172.16.2.1, and 172.16.3.1) will receive IPv4 BGP routes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 14
When implementing MPLS Layer 3 VPNs with customers running OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol, the service provider MPLS backbone looks like what to the CE routers?
A. the backbone (Area 0)
B. an external routing domain
C. a superbackbone that is transparent to the CE OSPF routers
D. a transit area (similar to a transit area for supporting virtual links)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 15
When implementing MPLS Layer 3 VPNs with customers running OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol, which situation will require a sham link to be implemented in the MPLS backbone?
A. to connect customer sites in different OSPF areas
B. to connect customer sites in the same OSPF area
C. to prevent OSPF routing loops when a customer site has redundant CE-PE connections
D. if there is a backdoor link between the CE routers, to ensure that the backdoor link is used only to back up the primary connection through the MPLS VPN
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 16
On Cisco IOS and IOS XE Layer 3 MPLS VPN implementations, when redistributing the customer RIP routes into MP-BGP, the RIP metric is copied into which BGP attribute?
A. local preference
B. weight
C. MED
D. extended community
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 17
Which option is used as a loop prevention mechanism to support MPLS VPN customers with multihomed sites?
A. BGP down bit
B. sham links
C. AS override
D. SOO extended BGP community
E. allow as-in
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 18
Refer to the partial Cisco IOS XR PE router configuration exhibit for supporting a Layer 3 MPLS VPN customer using BGP as the CE-to-PE routing protocol

pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps-18

The service provider AS number is 64500, the customer AS number is 64501, and the customer CE router is 10.1.1.1. What is missing in the configuration?
A. The route distinguisher has not been configured under router bgp 64500 vrf Customer_A.
B. The import and export route targets have not been configured under router bgp 64500 vrf Customer_A.
C. The 10.1.1.1 BGP neighbor has not been activated for IPv4 unicast routing.
D. The 10.1.1.1 BGP neighbor has not been activated for the VPNv4 address family.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 19
Based on the Cisco IOS XR VRF configuration exhibit,pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps - 19

Which two data flows between the MPLS VPNs will be allowed? (Choose two.)
A. The CustomerA central site can communicate with the CustomerB central site.
B. The CustomerA central site can communicate with all CustomerA sites.
C. The CustomerA central site can communicate with all CustomerB sites.
D. The CustomerA sites can communicate with all CustomerB sites.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 20
Refer to the partial Cisco IOS XR PE router VRF configuration exhibit.pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps - 20

To implement a central-service VPN supporting both customer1 and customer2, what will be the required corresponding VRF configuration on the central-service- server PE router?
A. vrf central-service-server
address-family ipv4 unicast
import route-target
3:1
2:2
export route-target
3:1
2:1
!
B. vrf central-service-server
address-family ipv4 unicast
import route-target
3:1
2:1
export route-target
3:1
2:2
!
C. vrf central-service-server
address-family ipv4 unicast
import route-target
3:1
1:1
1:2
export route-target
3:1
1:1
1:2
!
D. vrf central-service-server
address-family ipv4 unicast
import route-target
3:1
1:1
1:2
2:1
2:2
export route-target
3:1
1:1
1:2
2:1
2:2
!
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 21
When using H-VPLS, the PE router may use an IRB interface. How many VLAN tags can be processed by an IRB?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 22
Which two protocols can be used for VPLS signaling on a Cisco IOS XR router? (Choose two.)
A. BGP
B. LDP
C. TDP
D. RSVP
E. PBB
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 23
Which two MPLS QoS models described by RFC3270 are used for CE-PE QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. best effort
B. pipe
C. uniform
D. integrated services
E. differentiated services
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 24
A presale engineer is asked to advise about the various MPLS VPN designs to best fit the customer requirements. Which two MPLS L2VPN features should be highlighted as advantages over a MPLS L3VPN? (Choose two.)
A. An MPLS L2VPN design is a more appropriate solution for disaster recovery and data backup.
B. An MPLS L2VPN is a more redundant design compared to a MPLS L3VPN solution.
C. An MPLS L2VPN design does not require routing interaction with the service provider network.
D. An MPLS L2VPN design virtually extends the broadcast domain boundary allowing for the customer IGP to fully interoperate between remote sites.
E. An MPLS L2VPN design does not require monitoring, which provides a significant cost- saving solution.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 25
A network engineer working for a very large financial institution must migrate the legacy Frame Relay and ATM virtual circuits over a MPLS VPN solution. Which option is a benefit in choosing a MPLS Layer 3 VPN versus any other Layer 2
VPN design?
A. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design offers better scalability for large organizations.
B. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less customer edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN implementation.
C. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN solution provides the possibility to implement overlapping IP addressing.
D. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less provider edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN implementation.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 26
A company recently completed a third company acquisition and is requesting to deploy a point- to-point VPN technology over the IP core network to extend their IGP domain. The company core network is not MPLS-enabled yet. Which
technology matches these requirements?
A. Any Transport over MPLS
B. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol version 3
C. Virtual Private LAN Service
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 27
An engineer is deploying L2VPN service between two different Layer 2 encapsulations. Which feature should be set up to accomplish this task?
A. interworking VLAN on both the provider edge routers
B. interworking Ethernet on both the provider edge routers with VLAN tagging
C. interworking IPv4 on both the customer edge routers
D. interworking IPv4 on both the provider edge routers
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 28
Which Layer 2 encapsulations can AToM solution support with interworking IP feature enable?
A. Ethernet to ATM AAL5
B. ATM AAL5 to Frame Relay
C. PPP to Frame Relay
D. multipoint PPP to Frame Relay
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 29
A network engineer is tasked to implement an AToM VPN for a given customer to emulate a Frame Relay virtual circuit over the MPLS-enabled core network. Which command enables Frame Relay to forward frames from the attachment
circuit over the emulated session in regular Cisco IOS Software?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 tailend_router_ip
B. encapsulation frame-relay
C. frame-relay switching
D. frame-relay intf-type dce
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 30
Which option represents an AToM pseudowire basic configuration in Cisco IOS XR device?
A. pseudowire-class name_class
encapsulation mpls
!
B. pseudowire-class name_class
encapsulation l2tpv3
!
C. l2vpn pw-class name
encapsulation mpls
!
D. l2vpn xconnect group group-name
p2p xconnect-name
E. neighbor ip-address pw-id pseudowire-id
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 31
A service provider is tasked to write up a template for the network operations center to set up a Layer 2 VPN. Which command is the first command to issue on a Cisco IOS XR router?
A. xconnect peer_ip vc_id encapsulation encapsulation_type
B. connect name_pw interface_path_id dlci_value l2transport
C. l2vpn
D. pseudowire-class class_name
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps - 32PE1 and PE2 are advertising the same subnet 196.168.10.0/24 to PE3. Which PE advertised subnet is installed at PE3 BGP table?
A. PE2 subnet only due to the same RD value with PE1
B. PE2 subnet only due to the same RD value with PE3
C. Both PE1 and PE2 subnets due to exported subnet with RT matches import RT on PE3
D. PE1 subnet only due to exported subnet with RT matches import RT on PE3
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 33
A customer needs Internet and MPLS services from the service provider and needs to ensure traffic from the Internet network does not constrain MPLS traffic.
Which shared MPLS/Internet service type best accommodates this requirement?
A. partial separation
B. full separation
C. Multisite Internet Access
D. Internet tunnel over MPLS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 34
A customer requests Internet through its MPLS provider. Which Internet design model guarantees maximum security and easier provisioning?
A. Internet access through global routing
B. Internet access through route leaking
C. Internet access through a separate VPN service
D. Internet access through multisite
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 35
Which option is the primary purpose of central service MPLS VPNs?
A. provide customer access to provider resources while ensuring customers cannot communicate directly
B. provide the provider access to customer resources while ensuring customers cannot communicate directly
C. provide other service providers access to provider resources
D. provide other service providers access to customer resources
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 36
A network engineer is troubleshooting an MPLS Layer 3 VPN and discovers that routes are being learned by CE routers, but there is no IP connectivity. Which option is the most likely cause?
A. The provider does not have an end-to-end label switch path.
B. The customer does not have an end-to-end label switch path.
C. The customer is not sharing labels with the provider.
D. The provider is not sharing labels with the customer.
E. The providers PE to CE routing protocol is misconfigured.
F. The customers PE to CE routing protocol is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 37
Which option is a valid Cisco IOS XR BGP Layer 3 IPv4 MPLS VPN configuration?
A. router bgp 65001
no bgp default ipv4-unicast
bgp log-neighbor-changes
neighbor 1.2.3.4 remote-as 65001 neighbor 1.2.3.4 update-source Loopback0 address-family vpnv4 neighbor 1.2.3.4 activate
neighbor 1.2.3.4 send-community extended
exit-address-family
address-family ipv4 vrf VPN
redistribute ospf 100
B. router bgp 65001
no bgp default ipv4-unicast
bgp log-neighbor-changes
neighbor 1.2.3.4 remote-as 65001
neighbor 1.2.3.4 update-source Loopback0
address-family vpnv4
neighbor 1.2.3.4 activate
exit-address-family
address-family ipv4 vrf VPN
redistribute ospf 100
C. router bgp 100
address-family vpnv4 unicast
neighbor 2.2.2.2
remote-as 100
update-source Loopback0
address-family vpnv4 unicast
!
vrf VPN_A
rd 100:1
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 100
D. router bgp 100
address-family vpnv4 unicast
neighbor 2.2.2.2
remote-as 100
update-source Loopback0
address-family ipv4 unicast
!
vrf VPN_A
rd 100:1
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 100
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 38
Drag each item on the left to match the correct standard organization on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps - 38

 

QUESTION 39
Drag the standard on the left to match the correct description on the right.pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps - 39

 

QUESTION 40
Match the LAN type on the left to the correct MEF service type on the right.pass4itsure 642-889 exam dumps - 40

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QUESTION 1
Which tool provides centralized device and security policy management for Cisco VSG?
A. Cisco ANM
B. Flexible NetFlow
C. Cisco Prime LMS
D. Cisco Prime DCNM for LAN
E. Cisco Prime DCNM for SAN
F. Cisco VNMC
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:
public class Rank {
static CopyOnWriteArraySetandlt;Stringandgt; arr = new CopyOnWriteArraySetandlt;andgt;();
static void verify() {
String var =andquot;andquot;;
Iteratorandlt;Stringandgt; e=arr.iterator();
while (e.hasNext()) {
var = e.next();
if(var.equals(andquot;Aandquot;))
arr.remove(var);
}
}
public static void main (String[] args) {
ArrayListandlt;Stringandgt; list1 = new ArrayListandlt;andgt;();
list1.add(andquot;Aandquot;); list1.add(andquot;Bandquot;);
ArrayListandlt;Stringandgt; list2 = new ArrayListandlt;andgt;();
list1.add(andquot;Aandquot;); list1.add(andquot;Dandquot;);
arr.addAll(list1);
arr.addAll(list2);
verify();
for(String var : arr)
System.out.print(var + andquot; andquot;);
}
}
What is the result?
A. Null B D
B. Null B null D C. B D
D. D
E. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Given:
import java.util.Scanner;
public class Painting {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String input = andquot;Pastel, *Enamel, Fresco, *Gouacheandquot;;
Scanner s = new Scanner(input);
A. useDelimiter(andquot;,\\s*andquot;); while (s.hasNext()) { System.out.println(s.next()); } } } What is the result?
B. Paste1 Ename1 Fresco Gouache
C. Paste1 *Ename1 Fresco *Gouache
D. Pastel Ename1 Fresco Gouache
E. Pastel Ename1, Fresco Gouache
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 3
View the exhibit: (*Missing*)
Given the code fragment:
class Finder extends SimpleFileVisitorandlt;Pathandgt; {
private final PathMatcher matcher;
private static int numMatches = 0;
Finder () {
matcher = FileSystems.getDefault().getPathMatcher(andquot;glob:*javaandquot;);
} void find(Path file) {
Path name = file.getFileName();
if (name != null andamp;andamp; matcher.matches(name)) {
numMatches++;
}
}
void report()
{
System.out.println(andquot;Matched: andquot; + numMatches);
}
@Override
public FileVisitResult visitFile(Path file, BasicFileAttributes attrs)
find(file);
return CONTINUE;
}
}
public class Visitor {
public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException {
Finder finder = new Finder();
Files.walkFileTree(Paths.get(andquot;D:\\Projectandquot;), finder);
finder.report();
}
}
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails
B. 6
C. 4
D. 1
E. 3 F. Not possible to answer due to missing exhibit.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Note: The FileSystems.getDefault() returns the default FileSystem. The default file system creates objects that provide
access to the file systems accessible to the Java virtual machine. The working directory

QUESTION 4
Given:
Deque andlt;Stringandgt; myDeque = new ArrayDequeandlt;Stringandgt;();
myDeque.push(andquot;oneandquot;);
myDeque.push(andquot;twoandquot;);
myDeque.push(andquot;threeandquot;);
System.out.println(myDeque.pop());
What is the result?
A. Three
B. One
C. Compilation fails.
D. The program runs, but prints no output.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Given:
import java.io.IOException;
import java.io.file.Path;
import java.io.file.Paths;
public class Path12 {
public static void main(String s[]) throws IOException {
Path path = Paths.get(andquot;\\sales\\quarter\\..\\qtrlreport.txtandquot;);
path.relativize(Paths.get(andquot;\\sales\\annualreport.txtandquot;));
if(path.endsWith(andquot;annualreport.txtandquot;)) { System.out.println(true);
} else {
System.out.println(false);
}
System.out.println(path);
}
}
What is the result?
A. false \sales\quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
B. false \quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
C. true . . \ . . \ . . \ annualreport.txt
D. true \ . . \ . . \annualreport.txt
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The relativize method that can be used to construct a relative path between two paths.
relativize
Path relativize(Path other)
Constructs a relative path between this path and a given path.

QUESTION 6
Given:
1.
interface Writable {
2.
void write (String s);
3.
}
4 .
5.
abstract class Writer implements Writable { 6.
// Line ***
7.
}
Which two statements are true about the writer class?
A. It compiles without any changes.
B. It compiles if the code void write (String s); is added at line ***.
C. It compiles if the code void write (); is added at line ***.
D. It compiles if the code void write (string s) { } is added at line ***.
E. It compiles if the code write () {} is added at line ***.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
An abstract class does not need to implement the interface methods.

QUESTION 7
Given: public class A { //Line 1 private void a() {}; //Line 2 class B { //Line 3 private void b(){{ //Line 4 a();{ //Line 5 }{
//Line 6 }{ //Line 7 public static void main(String[] args) {{ //Line 8
A. B b = new A().new B();{ //Line 9
B. b();{ //Line 10 }{ //Line 11 }{ //Line 12 What is the result?
C. Compilation fails at line 9
D. Compilation fails at line 10
E. Compilation fails at line 5
F. Compilation fails at line 3
G. Compilation succeeds
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Given this code fragment:
public static void main(String[] args) {
try { String query = andquot;SELECT * FROM Itemandquot;;
Statement stmt = conn.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery(query);
ResultSetMetaData rsmd = rs.getMetaData(); // Line 14
int colCount = rsmd.getColumnCount();
while (rs.next()) {
for (int i = 1; i andlt;= colCount; i++) {
System.out.print(rs.getObject(i) + andquot; andquot;); // Line 17
}
System.out.println();
}
} catch (SQLException se) {
System.out.println(andquot;Errorandquot;);
}
Assume that the SQL query returns records. What is the result?
A. Compilation fails due to error at line 17
B. The program prints Error
C. The program prints each record
D. Compilation fails at line 14
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Given:
import java.util.*;
public class SearchText {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Object[] array1 = new Object[3];
array1[0] = andquot;fooandquot;;
array1[0] = 1; array1[0] = \’a\’;
int index = Arrays.binarySearch(array1, andquot;barandquot;);
System.out.println(index);
}
}
What is the result?
A. ?1
B. 0
C. 2
D. Compilation fails
E. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
The code compiles fine.
An exception is thrown at runtime due to data type comparison mismatch:
Exception in thread andquot;mainandquot; java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be

QUESTION 10
Given the directory structure that contains three directories: company, Salesdat, and Finance:
Company
And the code fragment:
pass4itsure 1z0-804 question
If Company is the current directory, what is the result?
A. Prints only Annual.dat
B. Prints only Salesdat, Annual.dat
C. Prints only Annual.dat, Salary.dat, Target.dat
D. Prints at least Salesdat, Annual.dat, Salary.dat, Target.dat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The pattern *dat will match the directory name Salesdat and it will also match the file Annual.dat. It will not be matched
to Target.dat which is in a subdirectory.

QUESTION 11
Select four examples that initialize a NumberFormat reference using a factory.
A. NumberFormat nf1 = new DecimalFormat();
B. NumberFormat nf2 = new DecimalFormat(andquot;0.00andquot;) ;
C. NumberFormat nf3 = NumberFormat.getInstance();
D. NumberFormat nf4 = NumberFormat.getIntegerInstance();
E. NumberFormat nf5 = DecimalFormat.getNumberInstance ();
F. NumberFormat nf6 = Number Format.getCurrecyInstance () ;
Correct Answer: CDEF
Explanation
getInstance
public static final NumberFormat getInstance()
Returns the default number format for the current default locale. The default format is one of the styles provided by the
other fact

QUESTION 12
Which two actions can be used in registering a JDBC 3.0 driver?
A. Add the driver class to the META-INF/services folder of the JAR file.
B. Set the driver class name by using the jdbc.drivers system property.
C. Include the JDBC driver class in a jdbcproperties file.
D. Use the java.lang.class.forName method to load the driver class.
E. Use the DriverManager.getDriver method to load the driver class. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
A: f your JDBC Driver is NOT JDBC 4-compliant then we can update the driver using andquot;jarandquot; utility by
adding the andquot;META-INF/services/java.sql.Driverandquot; inside it. as following:
D:

QUESTION 13
Given the following code fragment:
public static void main(String[] args) {
Connection conn = null;
Dequeandlt;Stringandgt; myDeque = new ArrayDequeandlt;andgt;();
myDeque.add(andquot;oneandquot;);
myDeque.add(andquot;twoandquot;);
myDeque.add(andquot;threeandquot;);
System.out.println(myDeque.remove());
}
What is the result?
A. Three
B. One
C. Compilation fails
D. The program runs, but prints no outout
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The ArrayDeque.remove() method retrieves and removes the head of the queue represented by this deque. The head of
the queue is item andquot;oneandquot;. Reference: java.util Class ArrayDeque

QUESTION 14
Which two demonstrate the valid usage of the keyword synchronized?
A. interface ThreadSafe { synchronized void doIt(); }
B. abstract class ThreadSafe { synchronized abstract void doIt(); }
C. class ThreadSafe { synchronized static void soIt () {} }
D. enum ThreadSafe { ONE, TWO, Three; Synchronized final void doIt () {} } Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
The Java programming language provides two basic synchronization idioms:
synchronized methods and synchronized statements.
Example:
To make a method synchronized, simply add the synchroni

QUESTION 15
Given:
class Car implements TurboVehicle, Steerable {
// Car methods andgt; interface Convertible
{
// Convertible methods
}
public class SportsCar extends Car implements Convertible {
}
Which statement is true?
A. SportsCar must implement methods from TurboVehicle and steerable
B. SportsCar must override methods defined by car.
C. SportsCar must implement methods define by convertible.
D. Instances of car can invoke convertible methods.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
To declare a class that implements an interface, you include an implements clause in the class declaration.
By convention, theimplements clause follows the extends clause, if there is one.
Here a

QUESTION 16
Given:
import java.util.Map;
import java.util.Set; import java.util.TreeMap;
public class MapClass {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Map andlt;String, Stringandgt; partList = new TreeMapandlt;andgt;();
partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;Large Widgetandquot;);
partList.put(andquot;P001andquot;, andquot;Widgetandquot;);
partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;X-Large Widgetandquot;);
Setandlt;Stringandgt; keys = partList.keySet();
for (String key:keys) {
System.out.println(key + andquot; andquot; + partList.get(key));
}
}
}
What is the result?
A. p001 Widget p002 X-Large Widget
B. p002 Large Widget p001 Widget
C. p002 X-large Widget p001 Widget
D. p001 Widget p002 Large Widget
E. compilation fails
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Compiles fine. Output is: P001 Widget P002 X-Large Widget
Line: partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;X-Large Widgetandquot;); overwrites line:
partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;Large Widg

QUESTION 17
Given: Which two statements concerning the OO concepts andquot;is-aandquot; and andquot;has-aandquot; are true?
pass4itsure 1z0-804 question

A. Flimmer is-a Glommer.
B. Flommer has-a String.
C. Tagget has-a Glommer.
D. Flimmer is-a ArrayList.
E. Tagget has-a doStuff()
F. Tagget is-a Glommer.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
B: The relationship modeled by composition is often referred to as the andquot;has-aandquot; relationship. Here
Flommer has-a String.
E: The has-a relationship has an encapsulation feature (like priva

QUESTION 18
Given these facts about Java types in an application:

Type x is a template for other types in the application.

Type x implements dostuff ().

Type x declares, but does NOT implement doit().

Type y declares doOther() .
Which three are true?
A. Type y must be an interface. B. Type x must be an abstract class.
C. Type y must be an abstract class.
D. Type x could implement or extend from Type y.
E. Type x could be an abstract class or an interface.
F. Type y could be an abstract class or an interface.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Unlike interfaces, abstract classes can contain fields that are not static and final, and they can contain implemented
methods. Such abstract classes are similar to
interfaces, except that they provid

QUESTION 19
Which two code blocks correctly initialize a Locale variable?
A. Locale loc1 = andquot;UKandquot;;
B. Locale loc2 = Locale.getInstance(andquot;ruandquot;);
C. Locale loc3 = Locale.getLocaleFactory(andquot;RUandquot;);
D. Locale loc4 = Locale.UK;
E. Locale loc5 = new Locale(andquot;ruandquot;, andquot;RUandquot;);
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
D: The Locale class provides a number of convenient constants that you can use to create Locale objects for commonly
used locales. For example, the following creates a Locale object for the United States: Lo

QUESTION 20
Given the code fragment:
public void infected() {
System.out.print(andquot;before andquot;);
try {
int i = 1/0;
System.out.print(andquot;try andquot;);
} catch(Exception e) {
System.out.print(andquot;catch andquot;); throw e;
} finally {
System.out.print(andquot;finally andquot;);
}
System.out.print(andquot;after andquot;);
}
What is the result when infected() is invoked?
A. before try catch finally after
B. before catch finally after
C. before catch after
D. before catch finally
E. before catch
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The following line throws and exception: int i = 1/0;
This exception is caught by: catch(Exception e) { System.out.print(andquot;catch andquot;); throw e;
Lastly, the finally statement is run as

QUESTION 21
What are two differences between Callable and Runnable?
A. A callable can return a value when executing, but a Runnable cannot.
B. A callable can be executed by a ExecutorService, but a Runnable cannot.
C. A Callable can be passed to a Thread, but a Runnable cannot.
D. A callable can throw an Exception when executing, but a Runnable cannot.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
The Callable interface is similar to Runnable, in that both are designed for classes whose instances are potentially
executed by another thread. A Runnable, however, does not return a result and cannot throw

QUESTION 22
Given the Greetings.properties file, containing: HELLO_MSG = Hello, everyone!
GOODBYE_MSG = Goodbye everyone!
And given:
import java.util.Enumeration;
import java.util.Locale;
import java.util.ResourceBundle;
public class ResourceApp {
public void loadResourceBundle() {
ResourceBundle resource = ResourceBundle.getBundle(andquot;Greetingsandquot;, Locale.US);
System.out.println(resource.getObject(1));
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
new ResourcesApp().loadResourceBundle();
}
}
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails
B. HELLO_MSG
C. GOODGYE_NSG
D. Hello, everyone!
E. Goodbye everyone!
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The code will not compile.
The problem is the following line:
System.out.println(resource.getObject(1));
In particular getObject(1) throws the following error:
Exception in thread a

QUESTION 23
Given: What is the result?
pass4itsure 1z0-804 question

A. fast slow
B. fast goes
C. goes goes
D. fast fast
E. fast followed by an exception
F. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Line: Vehicle v = new Sportscar(); causes compilation failure:
error: cannot find symbol Vehicle v = new Sportscar(); symbol: class Sportscar location: class VehicleTest

QUESTION 24
Given:
import java.util.*;
public class AccessTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread(new WorkerThread()); Thread t2 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
t1.start(); t2.start; // line1
}
}
class WorkPool {
static ArrayListandlt;Integerandgt; list = new ArrayListandlt;andgt;(); // line2
public static void addItem() { // line3
list.add(1); // Line4
}
}
class WorkerThread implements Runnable {
static Object bar = new Object ();
public void run() { //line5
for (int i=0; iandlt;5000;i++) WorkPool.addItem(); // line6
}
}
Which of the four are valid modifications to synchronize access to the valid list between threads t1 and t2?
A. Replace line 1 with: Synchronized (t2) (t1.start();) synchronized(t1) (t2.start();)
B. Replace Line 2 with: static CopyWriteArrayListandlt;Integerandgt; list = new CopyWriteArrayListandlt;andgt;();
C. Replace line 3 with: synchronized public static void addItem () {
D. Replace line 4 with: synchronized (list) (list.add(1);)
E. Replace line 5 with: Synchronized public void run () {
F. replace line 6 with: Synchronized (this) {for (in i = 0, iandlt;5000, i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
G. Replace line 6 with: synchronized (bar) {for (int i= 0; iandlt;5000; i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
Correct Answer: ABCF
Explanation
B: CopyOnWriteArrayList
A thread-safe variant of ArrayList in which all mutative operations (add, set, and so on) are implemented by making a
fresh copy of the underlying array. This is ordina

QUESTION 25
Given:
public class SleepOtherThread {
public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException {
Runnable r = new Runnable() {
public void run() {
System.out.print(Thread.currentThread().getName());
}
};
Thread t1 = new Thread(r, andquot;One andquot;);
t1.start();
t1.sleep(2000);
Thread t2 = new Thread(r, andquot;Two andquot;);
t2.start();
t2.sleep(1000);
System.out.print(andquot;Main andquot;);
}
}
What is the most likely result?
A. Main One Two
B. Main Two One
C. One Two Main
D. One Main Two
E. Two Main One
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Given the code fragment: public class ReadFile01 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String fileName = andquot;myfile.txtandquot;;
try (BufferedReader buffIn = // Line 4
new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fileName))) {
String line = andquot;andquot;; int count = 1;
line = buffIn.readLine(); // Line 7
do {
line = buffIn.readLine();
System.out.println(count + andquot;: andquot; + line);
} while (line != null);
} catch (IOException | FileNotFoundException e) {
System.out.println(andquot;Exception: andquot; + e.getMessage());
}
}
}
What is the result, if the file myfile.txt does not exist?
A. A runtime exception is thrown at line 4
B. A runtime exception is thrown at line 7
C. Creates a new file and prints no output
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
There will be a FileNotFoundException at line 4.

QUESTION 27
Given the following code fragment:
10.
p1 = paths.get(andquot;report.txtandquot;);
11. p2 = paths.get(andquot;companyandquot;);
12.
/ / insert code here
Which code fragment, when inserted independently at line 12, move the report.txt file to the company directory, at the
same level, replacing the file if it already exists?
A. Files.move(p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, StandardCopyOption.ATOMIC_MOVE);
B. Files.move(p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_Existing, LinkOption.NOFOLLOW_LINKS);
C. Files.move (p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, LinkOption.NOFOLLOW_LINKS);
D. Files.move(p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, StandardCopyOption.copy_ATTRIBUTES,
StandrardCopyOp)
E. Files.move (p1, p2 StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, StandardCopyOption.copy_ATTRIBUTES,
LinkOption.NOF)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Moving a file is equally as straight forward ?move(Path source, Path target, CopyOption… options);
The available StandardCopyOptions enums available are:
StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING

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QUESTION 1
Given the class definitions:
And the code fragment of the main() method,
What is the result?
A. Java Java Java
B. Java Jeve va
C. Java Jeve ve
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given:
What is the result?
A. 10 20 30 40
B. 0 0 30 40
C. Compilation fails
D. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Given:
public class Test {
static boolean bVar;
public static void main(String[] args) {
boolean bVar1 = true;
int count =8;
do {
System.out.println(andquot;Hello Java! andquot; +count); if (count andgt;= 7) {
bVar1 = false;
}
} while (bVar != bVar1 andamp;andamp; count andgt; 4);
count -= 2;
}
}
What is the result?
A. Hello Java! 8 Hello Java! 6 Hello Java! 4
B. Hello Java! 8 Hello Java! 6
C. Hello Java! 8
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:
String[] cartoons = {andquot;tomandquot;,andquot;jerryandquot;,andquot;mickyandquot;,andquot;tomandquot;};
int counter =0;
if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[0])) {
counter++;
} else if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[1])) {
counter++;
} else if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[2])) {
counter++;
} else if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[3])) {
counter++;
}
System.out.print(counter);
What is the result?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Given:
What is the result?
A. 10 : 22 : 20
B. 10 : 22 : 22
C. 10 : 22 : 6
D. 10 : 30 : 6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:
public class ForTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int[] array = {1, 2, 3};
for ( foo ) {
}
}
Which three code fragments, when replaced individually for foo, enables the program to compile?
A. int i : array
B. int i = 0; i andlt; 1;
C. ; ;
D. ; i andlt; 1; i++
E. i = 0; iandlt;1;
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Given: A. ns = 50 S = 125 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 100 S = 125
B. ns = 50 S = 125 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 0 S = 125
C. ns = 50 S = 50 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 100 S = 100
D. ns = 50 S = 50 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 0 S = 125
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Given:
Which code fragment should you use at line n1 to instantiate the dvd object successfully?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Given the code fragment
Which code fragments, inserted independently, enable the code compile?
A. t.fvar = 200;
B. cvar = 400;
C. fvar = 200; cvar = 400;
D. this.fvar = 200; this.cvar = 400;
E. t.fvar = 200; Test2.cvar = 400;
F. this.fvar = 200; Test2.cvar = 400;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Given:
interface Pet { }
class Dog implements Pet { } public class Beagle extends Dog{ }
Which three are valid?
A. Pet a = new Dog();
B. Pet b = new Pet();
C. Dog f = new Pet();
D. Dog d = new Beagle();
E. Pet e = new Beagle();
F. Beagle c = new Dog();
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
Which two are benefits of polymorphism?
A. Faster code at runtime
B. More efficient code at runtime
C. More dynamic code at runtime
D. More flexible and reusable code
E. Code that is protected from extension by other classes
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which three statements are benefits of encapsulation?
A. Allows a class implementation to change without changing t he clients
B. Protects confidential data from leaking out of the objects
C. Prevents code from causing exceptions
D. Enables the class implementation to protect its invariants
E. Permits classes to be combined into the same package
F. Enables multiple instances of the same class to be created safely
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
Given the code fragment: Which two modifications, when made independently, enable the code to print joe:true: 100.0?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Given:
What is the result?
A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Given:
class MarksOutOfBoundsException extends IndexOutOfBoundsException { }
public class GradingProcess {
void verify(int marks) throws IndexOutOfBoundsException {
if (marks andgt; 100) {
throw new MarksOutOfBoundsException();
}
if (marks andgt; 50) {
System.out.print(andquot;Passandquot;);
} else {
System.out.print(andquot;Failandquot;);
} }
public static void main(String[] args) {
int marks = Integer.parseInt(args[2]);
try {
new GradingProcess().verify(marks));
} catch(Exception e) {
System.out.print(e.getClass());
}
}
}
And the command line invocation:
Java grading process 89 50 104
What is the result?
A. Pass
B. Fail
C. Class MarketOutOfBoundsException
D. Class IndexOutOfBoundsException
E. Class Exception
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Given the code fragment:
Which three code fragments can be independently inserted at line nl to enable the code to print one?
A. Byte x = 1;
B. short x = 1;
C. String x = andquot;1andquot;;
D. Long x = 1;
E. Double x = 1;
F. Integer x = new Integer (andquot;1andquot;);
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 17
Given:
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails
B. The code compiles, but does not execute.
C. Paildrome
D. Wow
E. Mom
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Given the code fragment:
What is the result?
A. May 04, 2014T00:00:00.000
B. 2014-05-04T00:00: 00. 000
C. 5/4/14T00:00:00.000
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are asked to develop a program for a shopping application, and you are given the following information:
The application must contain the classes Toy, EduToy, and consToy. The Toy class is the superclass of the other two
classes. The int caicuiatePrice (Toy t)
method calculates the price of a toy. The void printToy (Toy t) method prints the details of a toy.
Which definition of the Toy class adds a valid layer of abstraction to the class hierarchy?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Given the code format: Which code fragment must be inserted at line 6 to enable the code to compile?
A. DBConfiguration f; return f;
B. Return DBConfiguration;
C. Return new DBConfiguration;
D. Retutn 0;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Given the following class declarations:
public abstract class Animal public interface Hunter public class Cat extends Animal implements Hunter public class
Tiger extends Cat
Which answer fails to compile?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Given:
What is the result?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Given:
public class Test1 {
static void doubling (Integer ref, int pv) {
ref =20;
pv = 20;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
Integer iObj = new Integer(10);
int iVar = 10;
doubling(iObj++, iVar++);
System.out.println(iObj+ andquot;, andquot;+iVar);
What is the result?
A. 11, 11
B. 10, 10
C. 21, 11
D. 20, 20
E. 11, 12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Given:
class Sports {
int num_players;
String name, ground_condition;
Sports(int np, String sname, String sground){
num_players = np;
name = sname;
ground_condition = sground;
} }
class Cricket extends Sports {
int num_umpires;
int num_substitutes;
Which code fragment can be inserted at line //insert code here to enable the code to compile?
A. Cricket() { super(11, andquot;Cricketandquot;, andquot;Condidtion OKandquot;); num_umpires =3;
num_substitutes=2; }
B. Cricket() { super.ground_condition = andquot;Condition OKandquot;; super.name=andquot;Cricketandquot;;
super.num_players = 11; num_umpires =3; num_substitutes=2; }
C. Cricket() { this(3,2); super(11, andquot;Cricketandquot;, andquot;Condidtion OKandquot;); } Cricket(int nu, ns) {
this.num_umpires =nu; this.num_substitutes=ns; }
D. Cricket() { this.num_umpires =3; this.num_substitutes=2; super(11, andquot;Cricketandquot;, andquot;Condidtion
OKandquot;); }
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
boolean log3 = ( 5.0 != 6.0) andamp;andamp; ( 4 != 5); boolean log4 = (4 != 4) || (4 == 4);
System.out.println(andquot;log3:andquot;+ log3 + \nlog4andquot; + log4); What is the result?
A. log3:false log4:true
B. log3:true log4:true
C. log3:true log4:false
D. log3:false log4:false
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Given the following code:
What are the values of each element in intArr after this code has executed?
A. 15, 60, 45, 90, 75
B. 15, 90, 45, 90, 75
C. 15, 30, 75, 60, 90
D. 15, 30, 90, 60, 90
E. 15, 4, 45, 60, 90
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Given:
What would be the output, if it is executed as a program?
A. name =, pass =
B. name = null, pass = null
C. name = null, pass = false
D. name = null pass = true
E. Compile error.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Given:
What is the result?
A. 200.0 : 100.0
B. 400.0 : 200.0
C. 400.0 : 100.0
D. Compilation fails.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Given:
public class MyClass {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String s = andquot; Java Duke andquot;;
int len = s.trim().length();
System.out.print(len);
}
}
What is the result?
A. 8 B. 9
C. 11
D. 10
E. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Given:
What is the result?
A. 11, 21, 31, 11, 21, 31
B. 11, 21, 31, 12, 22, 32
C. 12, 22, 32, 12, 22, 32
D. 10, 20, 30, 10, 20, 30
Correct Answer: D

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Pass4itsure offers the latest Oracle Database 1Z0-883 practice test free of charge (30Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Consider the query:
Mysqlandgt; SET @run = 15;
Mysqlandgt; EXPLAIN SELECT objective, stage, COUNT (stage) FROM iteminformation
WHERE run=@run AND objective=\’7.1\’
GROUP BY objective,stage
ORDER BY stage;
pass4itsure 1Z0-883 question
This query is run several times in an application with different values in the WHERE clause in a growing data set. What
is the primary improvement that can be made for this scenario?
A. Execute the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
B. Drop the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
C. Do not pass a user variable in the WHERE clause because it limits the ability of the optimizer to use indexes.
D. Add an index on the objective column so that is can be used in both the WHERE and GROUP BY operations.
E. Add a composite index on (run,objective,stage) to allow the query to fully utilize an index.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have table `apps\’,\’userdata\’ on server that uses MyISAM storage engine. You want to transfer this data to server
but use InnoDB engine instead.
You execute the following commands:
ServerB commands:
Shellandgt; mysqldump u root h server no-data apps userdata | mysql u root p apps Shellandgt; mysql u root p h server
e `ALTER TABLE `apps\’,\’userdata\’ ENGINE=InnoDB;\’ Shellandgt; mysqldump u root p h server no-create-info order-by-primary apps userdata | mysql u
root p apps
What effect does the order-by-primary argument have on the mysqldump command?
A. It exports tables with the most indexes first to assist with import speeds.
B. It ensures that unique indexes have no conflicts when the data is dumped.
C. It orders by primary key to assist in speeding up importing to InnoDB tables.
D. It must be specified so index data is dumped correctly when on-create-info is used.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to replicate a table from a master to a slave. The master and slave copies of the table will have different
number of columns. Which two conditions must be true?
A. Each extra column in the copy with more columns must not have a default value.
B. Columns that are common to both versions of the table must be defined in the same order on the master and the
slave.
C. The slave database cannot have more columns than the master. Only the master database can have more columns.
D. Columns that are common to both versions of the table must come first in the table definition, before any additional
columns are additional columns are defined on either server.
E. The master database cannot have more columns than the slave. Only the slave deatbase can have more columns.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Assume that you want to know which Mysql Server options were set to custom values. Which two methods would you
use to find out?
A. Check the configuration files in the order in which they are read by the Mysql Server and compare them with default
values.
B. Check the command-line options provided for the Mysql Server and compare them with default values.
C. Check the output of SHOW GLOBAL VARIABLES and compare it with default values.
D. Query the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.GLOBAL_VARIABLES table and compare the result with default values.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are using replication and the binary log files on your master server consume a lot of disk space. Which two steps
should you perform to safely remove some of the older binary log files?
A. Ensure that none of the attached slaves are using any of the binary logs you want to delete. B. Use the command PURGE BINARY LOGS and specify a binary log file name or a date and time to remove unused
files.
C. Execute the PURGE BINARY LOGE NOT USED command.
D. Remove all of the binary log files that have a modification date earlier than today.
E. Edit the .index file to remove the files you want to delete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When backing up a replication slave, which three should also be backed up in addition to data?
A. The master.info and relay.info files
B. The relay log files
C. The relay index file
D. Mysql.slave_master_info table
E. Mysql.slave_relay_log_info table
F. Mysql.slave_worker_info table
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about setting the per-thread buffers higher than required?
A. More memory per thread is beneficial in all scenarios.
B. It causes increased overhead due to initial memory allocation.
C. It can affect system stability during peak load times, due to swapping.
D. It requires increasing the thread_cache_size variable.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Consider the following: Mysqlandgt; EXPLAIN SELECT * FROM City WHERE Name = `Jacksonville\’ AND
CountryCode = `USA\’ \G ******************************** 1. row ******************************** Id: 1 Select_type: SIMPLE
Table: City Type: ref Possible_keys: name_country_index Key: name_country_index Ref: const, const Rows: 1 Extra:
Using where
Which statement best describes the meaning of the value for the key_len column?
A. It shows the total size of the index row.
B. It shows how many columns in the index are examined.
C. It shows the number of characters indexed in the key. D. It shows how many bytes will be used from each index row.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Mysqldump was used to create a single schema backup; Shellandgt; mysqldump u root p sakila andgt; sakila2013.sql
Which two commands will restore the sakila database without interfering with other running database?
A. Mysqlandgt; USE sakila; LOAD DATA INFILE `sakila2013.sql\’;
B. Shellandgt; mysql u root p sakila sakila2013.sql
C. Shellandgt; mysql import u root p sakila sakila2013.sql
D. Shellandgt; mysql u root -p e `use sakila; source sakila2013.sql\’
E. Shellandgt; mysql u root p silent andlt; sakila2013.sql
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have forgotten the root user account password. You decide to reset the password and execute the following:
Shellandgt; /etc/init.d/mysql stop Shellandgt; /etc/init.d/mysql start skip-grant tables Which additional argument makes
this operation safer?
A. –skip-networking, to prohibit access from remote locations
B. –reset-grant-tables, to start the server with only the mysql database accessible
C. –read-only,to set all data to read-only except for super users
D. –old-passwords, to start Mysql to use the old password format while running without the grant tables
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Consider the MySQL Enterprise Audit plugin.
On attempting to start the MySQL service after a crash, notice the following error:
[ERROR] Plugin `audit_log\’ init function returned error.
In the audit log file, you notice the final entry:

andlt;AUDIT_RECORD
TIMESTAMP=andquot;2013-07-09T02:12:35″
NAME=andquot;Connect”
CONNECTION_ID=andquot;98″ STATUS=andquot;0″
USER=andquot;Kate”
PRIV_USER=andquot;kateandquot; OS_LOGIN=andquot;andquot; HOST=andquot;localhostandquot;
DB=andquot;andquot;/andgt;
What action should you take to fix the error and allow the service to start?
A. Re-install the audit plugin.
B. Execute the command FLUSH LOGS.
C. Execute the command SET GLOBAL audit_log_fiush= ON.
D. Move or rename the existing audit.log file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Identify a performance impact when using the Performance Schema.
A. There is no impact on performance.
B. There is an overhead for querying the Performance Schema but not for having it enabled.
C. There is a constant overhead regardless of settings and workload.
D. The overhead depends on the settings of the Performance Schema.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user executes the statement;
PURGE BINARY LOGS TO `mysql-bin.010\’;
What is the result?
A. It deletes all binary log files, except `mysql-in.010\’.
B. It deletes all binary log files up to and including `mysql-bin.010\’.
C. It deletes all binary log files before `mysql-bin.010\’.
D. It deletes all binary log files after `mysql-bin.010\’.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You want a record of all queries that are not using indexes.
How would you achieve this? A. By enabling the Slow Query Log because all queries that are not using indexes will be logged automatically
B. By enabling the Error Log because not using indexes is an error
C. By enabling the Slow Query Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
D. By enabling the Error Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You need to dump the data from the master server and import it into a new slave server.
Which mysqldump option can be used when dumping data from the master server in order to include the master
server\’s binary log information?
A. Include-master-info
B. Master-binlog
C. Include-log-file
D. Master-data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You attempt to connect to a Mysql Server by using the mysql program. However, you receive the following notice:
ERROR 2059 (HY000): Authentication plugin `mysql_clear_password\’ connot be loaded: plugin not enabled What
would you run to fix the issue?
A. The mysql client with the ignore-password-hashing option
B. The mysql_secure_installation script to update server security settings
C. The mysql client with the enable-cleartext-plugin option
D. The mysql_upgrade script
E. The install plugin command for the mysql_cleartext_password plugin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You have enabled the Slow Query Log for a short period.
When you process the Slow Query Log, you receive the following snip of output:
Count: 100 Time=0 .22a (22s) Lock=0.00s (0s) Rows=0.0 (0), root[root] @localhost CREATE TABLE `t1\’ (id serial,id0
varchar(N) unique key,intcaoll INT
(N)
,intco12 INT(N) ,intco13 INT(N) ,intco14 INT (N) ,intco15 INT(N) ,charcol1 VARVHAR(N) ,charcol2 VARCHAR(N)charcol3 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol4 VARVHAR(N) ,charcol5 VARCHAR(N) charcol6 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol7
VARVHAR(N) ,charcol8 VARCHAR(N) charcol9 VARCHAR (N) .charcol 10 VACHAR
(N)
)
Count: 64000 Time-0.02s (1213s) Lock=0.00s (6s) Rows=1.0 (64000), root [root]@ localhost SELECT intocl1, intco12,
intco13, intco14, intco15, intco16,intco17, intco18 ,intcol9, intcol10, charcol1, charcol2, charcol3, charcol4, charcol5,
charcol6 ,charcol7, charcol8, charcol9, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’
Count: 1 Time=0.02s (0s) Lock=0.00s (0s) Rows=1.0 (1) agent [agent] @localhost SELECT Select_priv,
Repl_client_priv, Show_db_priv, Super_priv, Process_priv FROM mysql.user WHERE CONCAT (user, `s\’, host) =
CURRENT_USER () Count: 48000 Time=0.02s (778s) Lock=0.00 (3s) Rows=1.0 (48000), root [root]@localhost
SELECT intocl1,intcol2,intcol3, intcol4, intcol5, charcol1, charcol2, charcol3 ,charcol4, charcol5, charcol6, charcol7,
charcol8, charcol9, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’
You want to tune the query such that it provides the greatest overall time savings.
Which query will accomplish this?
A. CHEATE TABLE `t1\’ (id serial, id0 varchar (N) unique key, intcol1 INT (N) ,intcol2 INT (N), intcol3 INT (N) ,intcol4
INT(N), intcol5 INT(N), charool1 VARCHAR
(N) ,charcol2 VARCHAR (N), charcol3 VARCHAR(N), charcol4 VARCHAR(N), charcol5 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol6
VARCHAR (N), charcol7 VARCHAR(N), charcol8 VARCHAR(N), charcol9 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol10 VARCHAR (N);
B. SELECT intcol1, intcol2, intcol3, intcol4, intcol5, intcol6, intcol7, intcol8, intcol9, Intcol10, intcol11, intcol12, intcol13,
intcol14, intcol15, intcol16, intcol17, intcol18, intcol19, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’;
C. SELECT Select_priv, Repl_client_priv, Show_db_priv, Super_priv, Process_priv FROM mysql.user WHERE
CONCAT (user,\’s\’, host) = CURRENT_USER();
D. SELECT intcol1, intcol2, intcol3, intcol4, intcol5, charcol1, charcol2, charcol3, charcol4, charcol5, charcol6, charcol7,
charcol8, charcol9, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
You are checking user accounts and attempt the following query:
Mysqlandgt; SELECT user, host, plugin FROM mysql.users; ERROR 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users\’ doesn\’t exist
Which subset of event attributes would indicate this error in the audit.log file?
A. NAME=andquot;Queryandquot; STATUS=andquot;1146andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;select user,host from
usersandquot;/andgt;
B. NAME=andquot;Errorandquot; STATUS=andquot;1146andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;Error 1146 (42S02): Table
`mysql.users\’ doesn\’t existandquot;/andgt;
C. NAME=andquot;Queryandquot;
STATUS=andquot;1146″ SQLTEXT=andquot; Error 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users\’ doesn\’t existandquot;/>
D. NAME=andquot;Errorandquot; STATUS=andquot;1146andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;select user,host from
usersandquot;/andgt;
E. NAME=andquot;Errorandquot; STATUS=andquot;0andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;Error 1146 (42S02): Table
`mysql.users\’ doesn\’t existandquot;/andgt;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
In a test database, you issue the SELECT … INTO OUTFILE statement to create a file with your t1 table data.
You then TRUNCATE this table to empty it.
Mysqlandgt; SELECT * INTO OUTFILE `/tmp/t1.sql\’ from t1; mysqlandgt; TRUNCATE t1;
Which two methods will restore data to the t1 table?
A. Mysqlandgt; LOAD DATA INFILE `/tmp/t1.sql\’ INTO TABLE t1;
B. $ mysqladmin u root p h localhost test restore /tmp/t1.sql
C. $ mysql u root p h localhost test andlt; /tmp/t1.sql
D. $ mysqlinport u root p h localhost test /tmp/t1.sql
E. Mysqlandgt; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES FROM `/tmp/t1.sql\’;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding partitioning in Mysql?
A. Tables with BLOB and TEXT columns cannot be partitioned.
B. Partitioning allows easier management of smaller data sets for certain queries.
C. Partitioning allows different columns to be stored in separate files.
D. The partitioning expression is an integer or function that returns an integer value or NULL value.
E. Partitioning is only available for those storage engines that implements it natively.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Consider the following table:
REATE TABLE `game\’ (
`id\’ int (10) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT,
`keyword\’ varchar (45) DEFAULT NULL, `date\’ datetime NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (`id\’ , `date\’),
UNIQUE KEY `keyword_idx\’ (`keyword\’ , `date\’)
) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1
PARTITION BY RANGE (TO_DAYS (date) ) (
PARTITION g201301 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-01-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION g201302 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-02-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION g201303 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-03-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION g201304 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-04-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
Which method should used to add a new g201305 partition to the table?
A. ALTER TABLE games REORGANIZE PARTITION (gMORES) INTO g01305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
B. ALTER TABLE games ADD PARTITION g201350 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) );
C. ALTER TABLE games COALESCE PARTITION (gMORES) INTO g01305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
D. ALTER TABLE games SPLIT PARTITION (gMORES) INTO g201305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
E. ALTHER TABLE games DROP PATITION gMORES, ADD PARTITION g201305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
A general purpose MySQL instance is configured with the following options:
— log-slow-queries — long-query-time=,0001 — log-slow-admin-queries — general-log — log-bin — binlog-
format=STATEMENT — innodb-flush-log-at-trx-commit=1
Which three statements are true?
A. The General Query Log records more data than the Binary Log.
B. The binary Log records more data than the General Query Log.
C. The Slow Query Log records more data than the General Query Log.
D. The General Query Log records more data than the Slow Query Log.
E. The Slow Query Log records more data than the Binary Log. F. The Binary Log records more data than the Slow Query Log.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 23
Which two capabilities are granted with the SUPER privilege?
A. Allowing a client to kill other client connections
B. Allowing a client to shut down the server
C. Allowing change of the server runtime configuration
D. Allowing client accounts to take over the account of another user
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
What are four capabilities of the mysql client program?
A. Creating and dropping databases
B. Creating, dropping, and modifying tables and indexes
C. Shutting down the server by using the SHUTDOWN command
D. Creating and administering users
E. Displaying replication status information
F. Initiating a binary backup of the database by using the START BACKUP command
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 25
Following a server crash, the automatic recovery of InnoDB fails. How would you begin to manually repair the InnoDB
tables?
A. Start the server with the innodb_force_recovery option set to a non-zero value.
B. Start the server as usual, and then execute the REPAIR TABLE command.
C. Start the server as usual, and then execute the CHECK TABLE command.
D. Start the server with the innodb_recover_options option set to FORCE.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which two statements are true about InnoDB auto-increment locking?
A. The auto-increment lock can be a table-level lock. B. InnoDB never uses table-level locks.
C. Some settings for innodb_autoinc_lock_mode can help reduce locking.
D. InnoDB always protects auto-increment updates with a table-level lock.
E. InnoDB does not use locks to enforce auto-increment uniqueness.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
You are having problems with connections from a specific host (192.168.1.15) not closing down correctly. You want to
find the state of the threads from that host check for long-running queries.
Which statement will accomplish this?
A. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.PROCESSLIST WHERE HOST=\’192.168.1.15\’;
B. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.EVENTS WHERE HOST=\’ 192.168.1.15\’;
C. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.STATISTICS WHERE HOST=\’ 192.168.1.15\’;
D. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.INNODB_METEICS WHERE HOST=\’ 192.168.1.15\’;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
You are attempting to secure a MySQL server by using SSL encryption.
On starting MySQL, you get this error:
130123 10:38:02 [ERROR] mysqld: unknown option `–ssl\’
What is the cause of the error?
A. The — ssl level was not specified.
B. The server was not started with the enable–ssl-plugin option.
C. — ssl is not a valid server option.
D. The mysqld binary was not compiled with SSL support.
E. The server\’s SSL certificate was invalid.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
In a design situation, there are multiple character sets that can properly encode your data. Which three should influence
your choice of character set?
A. Disk usage when storing data
B. Syntax when writing queries involving JOINS C. Comparing the encoded data with similar columns on other tables
D. Memory usage when working with the data
E. Character set mapping index hash size
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 30
The following commands are available in the Linux binary distributions of Mysql:
Mysqld
Mysqld_safe
Mysql.server
What is the correct description of each of these commands?
A.
Mysqld is the server. Mysqld_safe is a shell script that invokes mysqld. Mysql.server is a wrapper for mysql_safe.
B.
Mysqld is a shell script that starts mysql.server. Mysqld_safe causes the server to start up in data recovery mode.
Mysql.server is the server.
C.
Mysqld is the server. Mysqld_safe causes the server to start up in data recovery mode. Mysql.server is a wrapper for
mysqld_safe.
D.
Mysql, mysqld.safe, and mysql.server reside in different locations but are all symlinked to the same script.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL data warehouse.
During peak usage, you discover that the data warehouse fails to meet performance expectations.
You need to provide additional resources to the data warehouse.
What should you do?
A. Create an additional storage pool.
B. Create an elastic database pool.
C. Increase the number of Database Throughput Units (DTUs).
D. Increase the number of Data Warehouse Units (DWUs).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine.
You need to ensure that all SQL Server audits are written to the Windows Security log.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure the Audit policy change policy.
B. Assign the Generate security audits user right.
C. Configure the Audit object access policy.
D. Assign the Log on as a service user right.
E. Configure the Audit the access of global system objects policy.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
You have Microsoft SQL Server installed on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. The virtual machine is on the Standard D3 service tier. All of the data files for the databases on the virtual machine are located on a single volume that is mounted
as drive E.
The virtual machine experiences performance issues.
You view the wait statistics and discover a high number of GEIOLATCH_SH waits associated to the tempdb data files.
You need to resolve the performance issues.
What should you do?
A. Move the tempdb data files to drive D.
B. Move the tempdb data files to drive C.
C. Change the service tier of the virtual machine to Standard D12.
D. Change the service tier of the virtual machine to Standard DS3.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have several SQL Server instances on Microsoft Azure virtual machines.
Periodically, one of the virtual machines runs more slowly than expected. The issue typically persists for up to 30 minutes. You investigate the issue and discover that when the issue occurs, there is high CPU usage on the virtual machines.
You need to be notified automatically when the performance issue occurs. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you configure?
A. extended events to monitor the Processor:%Privileged Time of the virtual machine and SQL Server Agent alerts to notify the operator by sending an email message
B. Azure Diagnostics for the logs on the virtual machine and a rule in Management Services to send you an email message when the CPU usage is more than 80 percent
C. extended events to monitor the Processor:%User Time of the virtual machine and SQL Server Agent alerts to notify the operator by sending an email message
D. an alert rule in the Azure portal to send you an email message when the CPU usage is more than 80 percent for five consecutive minutes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft SQL Server instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine.
The members of an Active Directory group named HelpDesk can log in to the SQL Server instance.
You need to ensure that the members of HelpDesk can query dynamic management views and gather performance metrics from the SQL Server instance.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Add HelpDesk to the db_owner role for all of the databases.
B. Add HelpDesk to the new role.
C. Grant VIEW ANY DATABASE to the new role.
D. Grant VIEW SERVER STATE to the new role.
E. Create a database role.
F. Create a server role.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 6
You deploy a Microsoft SQL Server instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine by using a template.
You plan to deploy a PHP-based app in an Azure web app. The web app will use a database on the virtual machine. The web app and the virtual machine will be on the same Azure virtual network.
You need to ensure that the web app can access the SQL Server database.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Change the SQL Server authentication to mixed mode.
B. Use sp_configure to enable remote access.
C. From the Azure portal, add an endpoint for TCP port 1434.
D. On the virtual machine, enable the inbound connections on TCP port 1433 from Windows Firewall.
E. Restart the SQL Server service.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
You have Microsoft SQL Server 2014 installed on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine.
One of the databases on the virtual machine supports a highly active Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data in the application.
Which two tools can you use to identify the longest running queries? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the Job Activity Monitor
B. Database Engine Tuning Advisor
C. dynamic management views
D. SQL Server Extended Events
E. SQL metrics in Azure Diagnostics for the virtual machine
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Your company has two offices. The offices are located in London and New York.
The London office has a public IP of 131.107.1.1 and a private IP subnet of 192.168.4.0/24. The New York office has a public IP of 131.107.15.1 and a private IP subnet of 192.168.8.0/24.
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that is hosted on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. Currently, only the users in the London office use the database.
You need to create a new firewall rule to provide the users in the New York office with access to the database. The solution must protect the database from being accessed by users on the public Internet.What should you do?
A. Modify the endpoint from the Azure portal.
B. Use the sp_set_database_firewall_rule stored procedure.
C. Disable the Windows Firewall on the Azure virtual machine.
D. Run the New-AzureSqlDatabaseServerFirewallRule Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Use the Set Firewall Rule REST API.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to ensure that you can use the Always Encrypted feature for the database.
Which two components should you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. the Column Master Key
B. the database master key
C. the service master key
D. transparent data encryption (TDE)
E. the Column Encryption Key
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The database is hosted in the West US region and uses the Premium service tier. Users of the database are located in Los Angeles, New York, and Singapore.
The users in Singapore report that when they run reports against the database, the reports take a long time to complete. The reports contain thousands of rows.
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the performance issue. The solution must maintain the performance for the other users. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Move the Azure SQL database from the West US region to the East Asia region.
B. Implement Azure ExpressRoute for the subscription.
C. Configure a readable geo-replica in the East Asia region.
D. Configure pagination for the report.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have an organizational data mart that contains 3.5 TB of uncompressed data.
The size of the data is expected to grow 2 annually. Reporting is performed only during business hours.
You plan to move the data to the cloud.
You need to design a cloud architecture for the data mart. The solution must minimize costs and administrative overhead.
What is the best design to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. a Microsoft Azure SQL data warehouse
B. a Microsoft SQL Server virtual machine
C. a Microsoft Azure HDInsight cluster
D. a Microsoft Azure SQL database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You plan to implement a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to create and manage the new database on a new server.
Which three cmdlets should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. New-AzureSqlDatabaseServer
B. New AzureSqlDatabaseServerFirewallRule
C. New-AzureSqlDatabaseServerContext
D. New-AzureVM
E. New-AzureSqlDatabase
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 13
You have an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database in an AlwaysOn availability group.
You are planning a backup solution for the database. Backups will run on a secondary replica.
You need to create a backup procedure for the database. The solution must ensure that the backups are stored on-premises and in Microsoft Azure Blob storage.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run the BACKUP DATABASE statement and use the TO DISK clause.
B. Run the CREATE DATABASE statement and use the AS COPY OF clause.
C. Run the BACKUP DATABASE statement and use the TO URL clause.
D. Run the BACKUP DATABASE statement and use the MIRROR clause.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You have a hybrid Microsoft SQL Server environment that has multiple servers and services that run in both Microsoft Azure and on-premises.
If the network fails, you need to ensure that users can authenticate and connect to the resources available in Azure.
Which two server roles should you deploy to Azure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution?
A. Active Directory Federation Services
B. Active Directory Certificate Services
C. DHCP Server
D. Active Directory Domain Services
E. DNS Server
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
You have a report that runs against a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
The report takes more time to return results than expected.
You add an index to a table in the database.
You need to identify whether adding the index improves the performance issue.
What should you use?
A. Database Engine Tuning Advisor
B. Index Tuning Wizard
C. Azure Throughput Analyzer
D. Azure SQL Database Index Advisor
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You hire a new employee to assist in the management of a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to ensure that the employee can query dynamic management views.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place

QUESTION 17
You have four Microsoft Azure SQL databases located on the same database server.
You need to configure the databases to be in an elastic database pool.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select

QUESTION 18
You have several instances of Microsoft SQL Server on several Microsoft Azure virtual machines.
You need to implement an automated process to back up all of the virtual machines to an Azure storage account. The process must run weekly.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 19
You have four Microsoft Azure SQL databases.
You need to configure cross-database queries.
Which four statements should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 20
You have an AlwaysOn availability group between several Microsoft Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that the databases meet the following requirements:
The solution must prevent any disruption to replication.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? I answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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