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QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:
public class Rank {
static CopyOnWriteArraySetandlt;Stringandgt; arr = new CopyOnWriteArraySetandlt;andgt;();
static void verify() {
String var =andquot;andquot;;
Iteratorandlt;Stringandgt; e=arr.iterator();
while (e.hasNext()) {
var = e.next();
if(var.equals(andquot;Aandquot;))
arr.remove(var);
}
}
public static void main (String[] args) {
ArrayListandlt;Stringandgt; list1 = new ArrayListandlt;andgt;();
list1.add(andquot;Aandquot;); list1.add(andquot;Bandquot;);
ArrayListandlt;Stringandgt; list2 = new ArrayListandlt;andgt;();
list1.add(andquot;Aandquot;); list1.add(andquot;Dandquot;);
arr.addAll(list1);
arr.addAll(list2);
verify();
for(String var : arr)
System.out.print(var + andquot; andquot;);
}
}
What is the result?
A. Null B D
B. Null B null D C. B D
D. D
E. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Given:
import java.util.Scanner;
public class Painting {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String input = andquot;Pastel, *Enamel, Fresco, *Gouacheandquot;;
Scanner s = new Scanner(input);
A. useDelimiter(andquot;,\\s*andquot;); while (s.hasNext()) { System.out.println(s.next()); } } } What is the result?
B. Paste1 Ename1 Fresco Gouache
C. Paste1 *Ename1 Fresco *Gouache
D. Pastel Ename1 Fresco Gouache
E. Pastel Ename1, Fresco Gouache
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 3
View the exhibit: (*Missing*)
Given the code fragment:
class Finder extends SimpleFileVisitorandlt;Pathandgt; {
private final PathMatcher matcher;
private static int numMatches = 0;
Finder () {
matcher = FileSystems.getDefault().getPathMatcher(andquot;glob:*javaandquot;);
} void find(Path file) {
Path name = file.getFileName();
if (name != null andamp;andamp; matcher.matches(name)) {
numMatches++;
}
}
void report()
{
System.out.println(andquot;Matched: andquot; + numMatches);
}
@Override
public FileVisitResult visitFile(Path file, BasicFileAttributes attrs)
find(file);
return CONTINUE;
}
}
public class Visitor {
public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException {
Finder finder = new Finder();
Files.walkFileTree(Paths.get(andquot;D:\\Projectandquot;), finder);
finder.report();
}
}
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails
B. 6
C. 4
D. 1
E. 3 F. Not possible to answer due to missing exhibit.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Note: The FileSystems.getDefault() returns the default FileSystem. The default file system creates objects that provide
access to the file systems accessible to the Java virtual machine. The working directory

QUESTION 4
Given:
Deque andlt;Stringandgt; myDeque = new ArrayDequeandlt;Stringandgt;();
myDeque.push(andquot;oneandquot;);
myDeque.push(andquot;twoandquot;);
myDeque.push(andquot;threeandquot;);
System.out.println(myDeque.pop());
What is the result?
A. Three
B. One
C. Compilation fails.
D. The program runs, but prints no output.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Given:
import java.io.IOException;
import java.io.file.Path;
import java.io.file.Paths;
public class Path12 {
public static void main(String s[]) throws IOException {
Path path = Paths.get(andquot;\\sales\\quarter\\..\\qtrlreport.txtandquot;);
path.relativize(Paths.get(andquot;\\sales\\annualreport.txtandquot;));
if(path.endsWith(andquot;annualreport.txtandquot;)) { System.out.println(true);
} else {
System.out.println(false);
}
System.out.println(path);
}
}
What is the result?
A. false \sales\quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
B. false \quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
C. true . . \ . . \ . . \ annualreport.txt
D. true \ . . \ . . \annualreport.txt
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The relativize method that can be used to construct a relative path between two paths.
relativize
Path relativize(Path other)
Constructs a relative path between this path and a given path.

QUESTION 6
Given:
1.
interface Writable {
2.
void write (String s);
3.
}
4 .
5.
abstract class Writer implements Writable { 6.
// Line ***
7.
}
Which two statements are true about the writer class?
A. It compiles without any changes.
B. It compiles if the code void write (String s); is added at line ***.
C. It compiles if the code void write (); is added at line ***.
D. It compiles if the code void write (string s) { } is added at line ***.
E. It compiles if the code write () {} is added at line ***.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
An abstract class does not need to implement the interface methods.

QUESTION 7
Given: public class A { //Line 1 private void a() {}; //Line 2 class B { //Line 3 private void b(){{ //Line 4 a();{ //Line 5 }{
//Line 6 }{ //Line 7 public static void main(String[] args) {{ //Line 8
A. B b = new A().new B();{ //Line 9
B. b();{ //Line 10 }{ //Line 11 }{ //Line 12 What is the result?
C. Compilation fails at line 9
D. Compilation fails at line 10
E. Compilation fails at line 5
F. Compilation fails at line 3
G. Compilation succeeds
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Given this code fragment:
public static void main(String[] args) {
try { String query = andquot;SELECT * FROM Itemandquot;;
Statement stmt = conn.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery(query);
ResultSetMetaData rsmd = rs.getMetaData(); // Line 14
int colCount = rsmd.getColumnCount();
while (rs.next()) {
for (int i = 1; i andlt;= colCount; i++) {
System.out.print(rs.getObject(i) + andquot; andquot;); // Line 17
}
System.out.println();
}
} catch (SQLException se) {
System.out.println(andquot;Errorandquot;);
}
Assume that the SQL query returns records. What is the result?
A. Compilation fails due to error at line 17
B. The program prints Error
C. The program prints each record
D. Compilation fails at line 14
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Given:
import java.util.*;
public class SearchText {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Object[] array1 = new Object[3];
array1[0] = andquot;fooandquot;;
array1[0] = 1; array1[0] = \’a\’;
int index = Arrays.binarySearch(array1, andquot;barandquot;);
System.out.println(index);
}
}
What is the result?
A. ?1
B. 0
C. 2
D. Compilation fails
E. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
The code compiles fine.
An exception is thrown at runtime due to data type comparison mismatch:
Exception in thread andquot;mainandquot; java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be

QUESTION 10
Given the directory structure that contains three directories: company, Salesdat, and Finance:
Company
And the code fragment:
pass4itsure 1z0-804 question
If Company is the current directory, what is the result?
A. Prints only Annual.dat
B. Prints only Salesdat, Annual.dat
C. Prints only Annual.dat, Salary.dat, Target.dat
D. Prints at least Salesdat, Annual.dat, Salary.dat, Target.dat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The pattern *dat will match the directory name Salesdat and it will also match the file Annual.dat. It will not be matched
to Target.dat which is in a subdirectory.

QUESTION 11
Select four examples that initialize a NumberFormat reference using a factory.
A. NumberFormat nf1 = new DecimalFormat();
B. NumberFormat nf2 = new DecimalFormat(andquot;0.00andquot;) ;
C. NumberFormat nf3 = NumberFormat.getInstance();
D. NumberFormat nf4 = NumberFormat.getIntegerInstance();
E. NumberFormat nf5 = DecimalFormat.getNumberInstance ();
F. NumberFormat nf6 = Number Format.getCurrecyInstance () ;
Correct Answer: CDEF
Explanation
getInstance
public static final NumberFormat getInstance()
Returns the default number format for the current default locale. The default format is one of the styles provided by the
other fact

QUESTION 12
Which two actions can be used in registering a JDBC 3.0 driver?
A. Add the driver class to the META-INF/services folder of the JAR file.
B. Set the driver class name by using the jdbc.drivers system property.
C. Include the JDBC driver class in a jdbcproperties file.
D. Use the java.lang.class.forName method to load the driver class.
E. Use the DriverManager.getDriver method to load the driver class. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
A: f your JDBC Driver is NOT JDBC 4-compliant then we can update the driver using andquot;jarandquot; utility by
adding the andquot;META-INF/services/java.sql.Driverandquot; inside it. as following:
D:

QUESTION 13
Given the following code fragment:
public static void main(String[] args) {
Connection conn = null;
Dequeandlt;Stringandgt; myDeque = new ArrayDequeandlt;andgt;();
myDeque.add(andquot;oneandquot;);
myDeque.add(andquot;twoandquot;);
myDeque.add(andquot;threeandquot;);
System.out.println(myDeque.remove());
}
What is the result?
A. Three
B. One
C. Compilation fails
D. The program runs, but prints no outout
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The ArrayDeque.remove() method retrieves and removes the head of the queue represented by this deque. The head of
the queue is item andquot;oneandquot;. Reference: java.util Class ArrayDeque

QUESTION 14
Which two demonstrate the valid usage of the keyword synchronized?
A. interface ThreadSafe { synchronized void doIt(); }
B. abstract class ThreadSafe { synchronized abstract void doIt(); }
C. class ThreadSafe { synchronized static void soIt () {} }
D. enum ThreadSafe { ONE, TWO, Three; Synchronized final void doIt () {} } Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
The Java programming language provides two basic synchronization idioms:
synchronized methods and synchronized statements.
Example:
To make a method synchronized, simply add the synchroni

QUESTION 15
Given:
class Car implements TurboVehicle, Steerable {
// Car methods andgt; interface Convertible
{
// Convertible methods
}
public class SportsCar extends Car implements Convertible {
}
Which statement is true?
A. SportsCar must implement methods from TurboVehicle and steerable
B. SportsCar must override methods defined by car.
C. SportsCar must implement methods define by convertible.
D. Instances of car can invoke convertible methods.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
To declare a class that implements an interface, you include an implements clause in the class declaration.
By convention, theimplements clause follows the extends clause, if there is one.
Here a

QUESTION 16
Given:
import java.util.Map;
import java.util.Set; import java.util.TreeMap;
public class MapClass {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Map andlt;String, Stringandgt; partList = new TreeMapandlt;andgt;();
partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;Large Widgetandquot;);
partList.put(andquot;P001andquot;, andquot;Widgetandquot;);
partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;X-Large Widgetandquot;);
Setandlt;Stringandgt; keys = partList.keySet();
for (String key:keys) {
System.out.println(key + andquot; andquot; + partList.get(key));
}
}
}
What is the result?
A. p001 Widget p002 X-Large Widget
B. p002 Large Widget p001 Widget
C. p002 X-large Widget p001 Widget
D. p001 Widget p002 Large Widget
E. compilation fails
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Compiles fine. Output is: P001 Widget P002 X-Large Widget
Line: partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;X-Large Widgetandquot;); overwrites line:
partList.put(andquot;P002andquot;, andquot;Large Widg

QUESTION 17
Given: Which two statements concerning the OO concepts andquot;is-aandquot; and andquot;has-aandquot; are true?
pass4itsure 1z0-804 question

A. Flimmer is-a Glommer.
B. Flommer has-a String.
C. Tagget has-a Glommer.
D. Flimmer is-a ArrayList.
E. Tagget has-a doStuff()
F. Tagget is-a Glommer.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
B: The relationship modeled by composition is often referred to as the andquot;has-aandquot; relationship. Here
Flommer has-a String.
E: The has-a relationship has an encapsulation feature (like priva

QUESTION 18
Given these facts about Java types in an application:

Type x is a template for other types in the application.

Type x implements dostuff ().

Type x declares, but does NOT implement doit().

Type y declares doOther() .
Which three are true?
A. Type y must be an interface. B. Type x must be an abstract class.
C. Type y must be an abstract class.
D. Type x could implement or extend from Type y.
E. Type x could be an abstract class or an interface.
F. Type y could be an abstract class or an interface.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Unlike interfaces, abstract classes can contain fields that are not static and final, and they can contain implemented
methods. Such abstract classes are similar to
interfaces, except that they provid

QUESTION 19
Which two code blocks correctly initialize a Locale variable?
A. Locale loc1 = andquot;UKandquot;;
B. Locale loc2 = Locale.getInstance(andquot;ruandquot;);
C. Locale loc3 = Locale.getLocaleFactory(andquot;RUandquot;);
D. Locale loc4 = Locale.UK;
E. Locale loc5 = new Locale(andquot;ruandquot;, andquot;RUandquot;);
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
D: The Locale class provides a number of convenient constants that you can use to create Locale objects for commonly
used locales. For example, the following creates a Locale object for the United States: Lo

QUESTION 20
Given the code fragment:
public void infected() {
System.out.print(andquot;before andquot;);
try {
int i = 1/0;
System.out.print(andquot;try andquot;);
} catch(Exception e) {
System.out.print(andquot;catch andquot;); throw e;
} finally {
System.out.print(andquot;finally andquot;);
}
System.out.print(andquot;after andquot;);
}
What is the result when infected() is invoked?
A. before try catch finally after
B. before catch finally after
C. before catch after
D. before catch finally
E. before catch
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The following line throws and exception: int i = 1/0;
This exception is caught by: catch(Exception e) { System.out.print(andquot;catch andquot;); throw e;
Lastly, the finally statement is run as

QUESTION 21
What are two differences between Callable and Runnable?
A. A callable can return a value when executing, but a Runnable cannot.
B. A callable can be executed by a ExecutorService, but a Runnable cannot.
C. A Callable can be passed to a Thread, but a Runnable cannot.
D. A callable can throw an Exception when executing, but a Runnable cannot.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
The Callable interface is similar to Runnable, in that both are designed for classes whose instances are potentially
executed by another thread. A Runnable, however, does not return a result and cannot throw

QUESTION 22
Given the Greetings.properties file, containing: HELLO_MSG = Hello, everyone!
GOODBYE_MSG = Goodbye everyone!
And given:
import java.util.Enumeration;
import java.util.Locale;
import java.util.ResourceBundle;
public class ResourceApp {
public void loadResourceBundle() {
ResourceBundle resource = ResourceBundle.getBundle(andquot;Greetingsandquot;, Locale.US);
System.out.println(resource.getObject(1));
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
new ResourcesApp().loadResourceBundle();
}
}
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails
B. HELLO_MSG
C. GOODGYE_NSG
D. Hello, everyone!
E. Goodbye everyone!
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The code will not compile.
The problem is the following line:
System.out.println(resource.getObject(1));
In particular getObject(1) throws the following error:
Exception in thread a

QUESTION 23
Given: What is the result?
pass4itsure 1z0-804 question

A. fast slow
B. fast goes
C. goes goes
D. fast fast
E. fast followed by an exception
F. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Line: Vehicle v = new Sportscar(); causes compilation failure:
error: cannot find symbol Vehicle v = new Sportscar(); symbol: class Sportscar location: class VehicleTest

QUESTION 24
Given:
import java.util.*;
public class AccessTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread(new WorkerThread()); Thread t2 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
t1.start(); t2.start; // line1
}
}
class WorkPool {
static ArrayListandlt;Integerandgt; list = new ArrayListandlt;andgt;(); // line2
public static void addItem() { // line3
list.add(1); // Line4
}
}
class WorkerThread implements Runnable {
static Object bar = new Object ();
public void run() { //line5
for (int i=0; iandlt;5000;i++) WorkPool.addItem(); // line6
}
}
Which of the four are valid modifications to synchronize access to the valid list between threads t1 and t2?
A. Replace line 1 with: Synchronized (t2) (t1.start();) synchronized(t1) (t2.start();)
B. Replace Line 2 with: static CopyWriteArrayListandlt;Integerandgt; list = new CopyWriteArrayListandlt;andgt;();
C. Replace line 3 with: synchronized public static void addItem () {
D. Replace line 4 with: synchronized (list) (list.add(1);)
E. Replace line 5 with: Synchronized public void run () {
F. replace line 6 with: Synchronized (this) {for (in i = 0, iandlt;5000, i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
G. Replace line 6 with: synchronized (bar) {for (int i= 0; iandlt;5000; i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
Correct Answer: ABCF
Explanation
B: CopyOnWriteArrayList
A thread-safe variant of ArrayList in which all mutative operations (add, set, and so on) are implemented by making a
fresh copy of the underlying array. This is ordina

QUESTION 25
Given:
public class SleepOtherThread {
public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException {
Runnable r = new Runnable() {
public void run() {
System.out.print(Thread.currentThread().getName());
}
};
Thread t1 = new Thread(r, andquot;One andquot;);
t1.start();
t1.sleep(2000);
Thread t2 = new Thread(r, andquot;Two andquot;);
t2.start();
t2.sleep(1000);
System.out.print(andquot;Main andquot;);
}
}
What is the most likely result?
A. Main One Two
B. Main Two One
C. One Two Main
D. One Main Two
E. Two Main One
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Given the code fragment: public class ReadFile01 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String fileName = andquot;myfile.txtandquot;;
try (BufferedReader buffIn = // Line 4
new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fileName))) {
String line = andquot;andquot;; int count = 1;
line = buffIn.readLine(); // Line 7
do {
line = buffIn.readLine();
System.out.println(count + andquot;: andquot; + line);
} while (line != null);
} catch (IOException | FileNotFoundException e) {
System.out.println(andquot;Exception: andquot; + e.getMessage());
}
}
}
What is the result, if the file myfile.txt does not exist?
A. A runtime exception is thrown at line 4
B. A runtime exception is thrown at line 7
C. Creates a new file and prints no output
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
There will be a FileNotFoundException at line 4.

QUESTION 27
Given the following code fragment:
10.
p1 = paths.get(andquot;report.txtandquot;);
11. p2 = paths.get(andquot;companyandquot;);
12.
/ / insert code here
Which code fragment, when inserted independently at line 12, move the report.txt file to the company directory, at the
same level, replacing the file if it already exists?
A. Files.move(p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, StandardCopyOption.ATOMIC_MOVE);
B. Files.move(p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_Existing, LinkOption.NOFOLLOW_LINKS);
C. Files.move (p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, LinkOption.NOFOLLOW_LINKS);
D. Files.move(p1, p2, StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, StandardCopyOption.copy_ATTRIBUTES,
StandrardCopyOp)
E. Files.move (p1, p2 StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING, StandardCopyOption.copy_ATTRIBUTES,
LinkOption.NOF)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Moving a file is equally as straight forward ?move(Path source, Path target, CopyOption… options);
The available StandardCopyOptions enums available are:
StandardCopyOption.REPLACE_EXISTING

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QUESTION 1
Given the class definitions:
And the code fragment of the main() method,
What is the result?
A. Java Java Java
B. Java Jeve va
C. Java Jeve ve
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given:
What is the result?
A. 10 20 30 40
B. 0 0 30 40
C. Compilation fails
D. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Given:
public class Test {
static boolean bVar;
public static void main(String[] args) {
boolean bVar1 = true;
int count =8;
do {
System.out.println(andquot;Hello Java! andquot; +count); if (count andgt;= 7) {
bVar1 = false;
}
} while (bVar != bVar1 andamp;andamp; count andgt; 4);
count -= 2;
}
}
What is the result?
A. Hello Java! 8 Hello Java! 6 Hello Java! 4
B. Hello Java! 8 Hello Java! 6
C. Hello Java! 8
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:
String[] cartoons = {andquot;tomandquot;,andquot;jerryandquot;,andquot;mickyandquot;,andquot;tomandquot;};
int counter =0;
if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[0])) {
counter++;
} else if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[1])) {
counter++;
} else if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[2])) {
counter++;
} else if (andquot;tomandquot;.equals(cartoons[3])) {
counter++;
}
System.out.print(counter);
What is the result?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Given:
What is the result?
A. 10 : 22 : 20
B. 10 : 22 : 22
C. 10 : 22 : 6
D. 10 : 30 : 6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:
public class ForTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int[] array = {1, 2, 3};
for ( foo ) {
}
}
Which three code fragments, when replaced individually for foo, enables the program to compile?
A. int i : array
B. int i = 0; i andlt; 1;
C. ; ;
D. ; i andlt; 1; i++
E. i = 0; iandlt;1;
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Given: A. ns = 50 S = 125 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 100 S = 125
B. ns = 50 S = 125 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 0 S = 125
C. ns = 50 S = 50 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 100 S = 100
D. ns = 50 S = 50 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 0 S = 125
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Given:
Which code fragment should you use at line n1 to instantiate the dvd object successfully?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Given the code fragment
Which code fragments, inserted independently, enable the code compile?
A. t.fvar = 200;
B. cvar = 400;
C. fvar = 200; cvar = 400;
D. this.fvar = 200; this.cvar = 400;
E. t.fvar = 200; Test2.cvar = 400;
F. this.fvar = 200; Test2.cvar = 400;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Given:
interface Pet { }
class Dog implements Pet { } public class Beagle extends Dog{ }
Which three are valid?
A. Pet a = new Dog();
B. Pet b = new Pet();
C. Dog f = new Pet();
D. Dog d = new Beagle();
E. Pet e = new Beagle();
F. Beagle c = new Dog();
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
Which two are benefits of polymorphism?
A. Faster code at runtime
B. More efficient code at runtime
C. More dynamic code at runtime
D. More flexible and reusable code
E. Code that is protected from extension by other classes
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which three statements are benefits of encapsulation?
A. Allows a class implementation to change without changing t he clients
B. Protects confidential data from leaking out of the objects
C. Prevents code from causing exceptions
D. Enables the class implementation to protect its invariants
E. Permits classes to be combined into the same package
F. Enables multiple instances of the same class to be created safely
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
Given the code fragment: Which two modifications, when made independently, enable the code to print joe:true: 100.0?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Given:
What is the result?
A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Given:
class MarksOutOfBoundsException extends IndexOutOfBoundsException { }
public class GradingProcess {
void verify(int marks) throws IndexOutOfBoundsException {
if (marks andgt; 100) {
throw new MarksOutOfBoundsException();
}
if (marks andgt; 50) {
System.out.print(andquot;Passandquot;);
} else {
System.out.print(andquot;Failandquot;);
} }
public static void main(String[] args) {
int marks = Integer.parseInt(args[2]);
try {
new GradingProcess().verify(marks));
} catch(Exception e) {
System.out.print(e.getClass());
}
}
}
And the command line invocation:
Java grading process 89 50 104
What is the result?
A. Pass
B. Fail
C. Class MarketOutOfBoundsException
D. Class IndexOutOfBoundsException
E. Class Exception
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Given the code fragment:
Which three code fragments can be independently inserted at line nl to enable the code to print one?
A. Byte x = 1;
B. short x = 1;
C. String x = andquot;1andquot;;
D. Long x = 1;
E. Double x = 1;
F. Integer x = new Integer (andquot;1andquot;);
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 17
Given:
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails
B. The code compiles, but does not execute.
C. Paildrome
D. Wow
E. Mom
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Given the code fragment:
What is the result?
A. May 04, 2014T00:00:00.000
B. 2014-05-04T00:00: 00. 000
C. 5/4/14T00:00:00.000
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are asked to develop a program for a shopping application, and you are given the following information:
The application must contain the classes Toy, EduToy, and consToy. The Toy class is the superclass of the other two
classes. The int caicuiatePrice (Toy t)
method calculates the price of a toy. The void printToy (Toy t) method prints the details of a toy.
Which definition of the Toy class adds a valid layer of abstraction to the class hierarchy?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Given the code format: Which code fragment must be inserted at line 6 to enable the code to compile?
A. DBConfiguration f; return f;
B. Return DBConfiguration;
C. Return new DBConfiguration;
D. Retutn 0;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Given the following class declarations:
public abstract class Animal public interface Hunter public class Cat extends Animal implements Hunter public class
Tiger extends Cat
Which answer fails to compile?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Given:
What is the result?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Given:
public class Test1 {
static void doubling (Integer ref, int pv) {
ref =20;
pv = 20;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
Integer iObj = new Integer(10);
int iVar = 10;
doubling(iObj++, iVar++);
System.out.println(iObj+ andquot;, andquot;+iVar);
What is the result?
A. 11, 11
B. 10, 10
C. 21, 11
D. 20, 20
E. 11, 12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Given:
class Sports {
int num_players;
String name, ground_condition;
Sports(int np, String sname, String sground){
num_players = np;
name = sname;
ground_condition = sground;
} }
class Cricket extends Sports {
int num_umpires;
int num_substitutes;
Which code fragment can be inserted at line //insert code here to enable the code to compile?
A. Cricket() { super(11, andquot;Cricketandquot;, andquot;Condidtion OKandquot;); num_umpires =3;
num_substitutes=2; }
B. Cricket() { super.ground_condition = andquot;Condition OKandquot;; super.name=andquot;Cricketandquot;;
super.num_players = 11; num_umpires =3; num_substitutes=2; }
C. Cricket() { this(3,2); super(11, andquot;Cricketandquot;, andquot;Condidtion OKandquot;); } Cricket(int nu, ns) {
this.num_umpires =nu; this.num_substitutes=ns; }
D. Cricket() { this.num_umpires =3; this.num_substitutes=2; super(11, andquot;Cricketandquot;, andquot;Condidtion
OKandquot;); }
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
boolean log3 = ( 5.0 != 6.0) andamp;andamp; ( 4 != 5); boolean log4 = (4 != 4) || (4 == 4);
System.out.println(andquot;log3:andquot;+ log3 + \nlog4andquot; + log4); What is the result?
A. log3:false log4:true
B. log3:true log4:true
C. log3:true log4:false
D. log3:false log4:false
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Given the following code:
What are the values of each element in intArr after this code has executed?
A. 15, 60, 45, 90, 75
B. 15, 90, 45, 90, 75
C. 15, 30, 75, 60, 90
D. 15, 30, 90, 60, 90
E. 15, 4, 45, 60, 90
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Given:
What would be the output, if it is executed as a program?
A. name =, pass =
B. name = null, pass = null
C. name = null, pass = false
D. name = null pass = true
E. Compile error.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Given:
What is the result?
A. 200.0 : 100.0
B. 400.0 : 200.0
C. 400.0 : 100.0
D. Compilation fails.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Given:
public class MyClass {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String s = andquot; Java Duke andquot;;
int len = s.trim().length();
System.out.print(len);
}
}
What is the result?
A. 8 B. 9
C. 11
D. 10
E. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Given:
What is the result?
A. 11, 21, 31, 11, 21, 31
B. 11, 21, 31, 12, 22, 32
C. 12, 22, 32, 12, 22, 32
D. 10, 20, 30, 10, 20, 30
Correct Answer: D

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Pass4itsure offers the latest Oracle Database 1Z0-883 practice test free of charge (30Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Consider the query:
Mysqlandgt; SET @run = 15;
Mysqlandgt; EXPLAIN SELECT objective, stage, COUNT (stage) FROM iteminformation
WHERE run=@run AND objective=\’7.1\’
GROUP BY objective,stage
ORDER BY stage;
pass4itsure 1Z0-883 question
This query is run several times in an application with different values in the WHERE clause in a growing data set. What
is the primary improvement that can be made for this scenario?
A. Execute the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
B. Drop the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
C. Do not pass a user variable in the WHERE clause because it limits the ability of the optimizer to use indexes.
D. Add an index on the objective column so that is can be used in both the WHERE and GROUP BY operations.
E. Add a composite index on (run,objective,stage) to allow the query to fully utilize an index.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have table `apps\’,\’userdata\’ on server that uses MyISAM storage engine. You want to transfer this data to server
but use InnoDB engine instead.
You execute the following commands:
ServerB commands:
Shellandgt; mysqldump u root h server no-data apps userdata | mysql u root p apps Shellandgt; mysql u root p h server
e `ALTER TABLE `apps\’,\’userdata\’ ENGINE=InnoDB;\’ Shellandgt; mysqldump u root p h server no-create-info order-by-primary apps userdata | mysql u
root p apps
What effect does the order-by-primary argument have on the mysqldump command?
A. It exports tables with the most indexes first to assist with import speeds.
B. It ensures that unique indexes have no conflicts when the data is dumped.
C. It orders by primary key to assist in speeding up importing to InnoDB tables.
D. It must be specified so index data is dumped correctly when on-create-info is used.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to replicate a table from a master to a slave. The master and slave copies of the table will have different
number of columns. Which two conditions must be true?
A. Each extra column in the copy with more columns must not have a default value.
B. Columns that are common to both versions of the table must be defined in the same order on the master and the
slave.
C. The slave database cannot have more columns than the master. Only the master database can have more columns.
D. Columns that are common to both versions of the table must come first in the table definition, before any additional
columns are additional columns are defined on either server.
E. The master database cannot have more columns than the slave. Only the slave deatbase can have more columns.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Assume that you want to know which Mysql Server options were set to custom values. Which two methods would you
use to find out?
A. Check the configuration files in the order in which they are read by the Mysql Server and compare them with default
values.
B. Check the command-line options provided for the Mysql Server and compare them with default values.
C. Check the output of SHOW GLOBAL VARIABLES and compare it with default values.
D. Query the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.GLOBAL_VARIABLES table and compare the result with default values.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are using replication and the binary log files on your master server consume a lot of disk space. Which two steps
should you perform to safely remove some of the older binary log files?
A. Ensure that none of the attached slaves are using any of the binary logs you want to delete. B. Use the command PURGE BINARY LOGS and specify a binary log file name or a date and time to remove unused
files.
C. Execute the PURGE BINARY LOGE NOT USED command.
D. Remove all of the binary log files that have a modification date earlier than today.
E. Edit the .index file to remove the files you want to delete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When backing up a replication slave, which three should also be backed up in addition to data?
A. The master.info and relay.info files
B. The relay log files
C. The relay index file
D. Mysql.slave_master_info table
E. Mysql.slave_relay_log_info table
F. Mysql.slave_worker_info table
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about setting the per-thread buffers higher than required?
A. More memory per thread is beneficial in all scenarios.
B. It causes increased overhead due to initial memory allocation.
C. It can affect system stability during peak load times, due to swapping.
D. It requires increasing the thread_cache_size variable.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Consider the following: Mysqlandgt; EXPLAIN SELECT * FROM City WHERE Name = `Jacksonville\’ AND
CountryCode = `USA\’ \G ******************************** 1. row ******************************** Id: 1 Select_type: SIMPLE
Table: City Type: ref Possible_keys: name_country_index Key: name_country_index Ref: const, const Rows: 1 Extra:
Using where
Which statement best describes the meaning of the value for the key_len column?
A. It shows the total size of the index row.
B. It shows how many columns in the index are examined.
C. It shows the number of characters indexed in the key. D. It shows how many bytes will be used from each index row.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Mysqldump was used to create a single schema backup; Shellandgt; mysqldump u root p sakila andgt; sakila2013.sql
Which two commands will restore the sakila database without interfering with other running database?
A. Mysqlandgt; USE sakila; LOAD DATA INFILE `sakila2013.sql\’;
B. Shellandgt; mysql u root p sakila sakila2013.sql
C. Shellandgt; mysql import u root p sakila sakila2013.sql
D. Shellandgt; mysql u root -p e `use sakila; source sakila2013.sql\’
E. Shellandgt; mysql u root p silent andlt; sakila2013.sql
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have forgotten the root user account password. You decide to reset the password and execute the following:
Shellandgt; /etc/init.d/mysql stop Shellandgt; /etc/init.d/mysql start skip-grant tables Which additional argument makes
this operation safer?
A. –skip-networking, to prohibit access from remote locations
B. –reset-grant-tables, to start the server with only the mysql database accessible
C. –read-only,to set all data to read-only except for super users
D. –old-passwords, to start Mysql to use the old password format while running without the grant tables
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Consider the MySQL Enterprise Audit plugin.
On attempting to start the MySQL service after a crash, notice the following error:
[ERROR] Plugin `audit_log\’ init function returned error.
In the audit log file, you notice the final entry:

andlt;AUDIT_RECORD
TIMESTAMP=andquot;2013-07-09T02:12:35″
NAME=andquot;Connect”
CONNECTION_ID=andquot;98″ STATUS=andquot;0″
USER=andquot;Kate”
PRIV_USER=andquot;kateandquot; OS_LOGIN=andquot;andquot; HOST=andquot;localhostandquot;
DB=andquot;andquot;/andgt;
What action should you take to fix the error and allow the service to start?
A. Re-install the audit plugin.
B. Execute the command FLUSH LOGS.
C. Execute the command SET GLOBAL audit_log_fiush= ON.
D. Move or rename the existing audit.log file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Identify a performance impact when using the Performance Schema.
A. There is no impact on performance.
B. There is an overhead for querying the Performance Schema but not for having it enabled.
C. There is a constant overhead regardless of settings and workload.
D. The overhead depends on the settings of the Performance Schema.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user executes the statement;
PURGE BINARY LOGS TO `mysql-bin.010\’;
What is the result?
A. It deletes all binary log files, except `mysql-in.010\’.
B. It deletes all binary log files up to and including `mysql-bin.010\’.
C. It deletes all binary log files before `mysql-bin.010\’.
D. It deletes all binary log files after `mysql-bin.010\’.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You want a record of all queries that are not using indexes.
How would you achieve this? A. By enabling the Slow Query Log because all queries that are not using indexes will be logged automatically
B. By enabling the Error Log because not using indexes is an error
C. By enabling the Slow Query Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
D. By enabling the Error Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You need to dump the data from the master server and import it into a new slave server.
Which mysqldump option can be used when dumping data from the master server in order to include the master
server\’s binary log information?
A. Include-master-info
B. Master-binlog
C. Include-log-file
D. Master-data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You attempt to connect to a Mysql Server by using the mysql program. However, you receive the following notice:
ERROR 2059 (HY000): Authentication plugin `mysql_clear_password\’ connot be loaded: plugin not enabled What
would you run to fix the issue?
A. The mysql client with the ignore-password-hashing option
B. The mysql_secure_installation script to update server security settings
C. The mysql client with the enable-cleartext-plugin option
D. The mysql_upgrade script
E. The install plugin command for the mysql_cleartext_password plugin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You have enabled the Slow Query Log for a short period.
When you process the Slow Query Log, you receive the following snip of output:
Count: 100 Time=0 .22a (22s) Lock=0.00s (0s) Rows=0.0 (0), root[root] @localhost CREATE TABLE `t1\’ (id serial,id0
varchar(N) unique key,intcaoll INT
(N)
,intco12 INT(N) ,intco13 INT(N) ,intco14 INT (N) ,intco15 INT(N) ,charcol1 VARVHAR(N) ,charcol2 VARCHAR(N)charcol3 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol4 VARVHAR(N) ,charcol5 VARCHAR(N) charcol6 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol7
VARVHAR(N) ,charcol8 VARCHAR(N) charcol9 VARCHAR (N) .charcol 10 VACHAR
(N)
)
Count: 64000 Time-0.02s (1213s) Lock=0.00s (6s) Rows=1.0 (64000), root [root]@ localhost SELECT intocl1, intco12,
intco13, intco14, intco15, intco16,intco17, intco18 ,intcol9, intcol10, charcol1, charcol2, charcol3, charcol4, charcol5,
charcol6 ,charcol7, charcol8, charcol9, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’
Count: 1 Time=0.02s (0s) Lock=0.00s (0s) Rows=1.0 (1) agent [agent] @localhost SELECT Select_priv,
Repl_client_priv, Show_db_priv, Super_priv, Process_priv FROM mysql.user WHERE CONCAT (user, `s\’, host) =
CURRENT_USER () Count: 48000 Time=0.02s (778s) Lock=0.00 (3s) Rows=1.0 (48000), root [root]@localhost
SELECT intocl1,intcol2,intcol3, intcol4, intcol5, charcol1, charcol2, charcol3 ,charcol4, charcol5, charcol6, charcol7,
charcol8, charcol9, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’
You want to tune the query such that it provides the greatest overall time savings.
Which query will accomplish this?
A. CHEATE TABLE `t1\’ (id serial, id0 varchar (N) unique key, intcol1 INT (N) ,intcol2 INT (N), intcol3 INT (N) ,intcol4
INT(N), intcol5 INT(N), charool1 VARCHAR
(N) ,charcol2 VARCHAR (N), charcol3 VARCHAR(N), charcol4 VARCHAR(N), charcol5 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol6
VARCHAR (N), charcol7 VARCHAR(N), charcol8 VARCHAR(N), charcol9 VARCHAR (N) ,charcol10 VARCHAR (N);
B. SELECT intcol1, intcol2, intcol3, intcol4, intcol5, intcol6, intcol7, intcol8, intcol9, Intcol10, intcol11, intcol12, intcol13,
intcol14, intcol15, intcol16, intcol17, intcol18, intcol19, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’;
C. SELECT Select_priv, Repl_client_priv, Show_db_priv, Super_priv, Process_priv FROM mysql.user WHERE
CONCAT (user,\’s\’, host) = CURRENT_USER();
D. SELECT intcol1, intcol2, intcol3, intcol4, intcol5, charcol1, charcol2, charcol3, charcol4, charcol5, charcol6, charcol7,
charcol8, charcol9, charcol10 FROM t1 WHERE id = `s\’;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
You are checking user accounts and attempt the following query:
Mysqlandgt; SELECT user, host, plugin FROM mysql.users; ERROR 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users\’ doesn\’t exist
Which subset of event attributes would indicate this error in the audit.log file?
A. NAME=andquot;Queryandquot; STATUS=andquot;1146andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;select user,host from
usersandquot;/andgt;
B. NAME=andquot;Errorandquot; STATUS=andquot;1146andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;Error 1146 (42S02): Table
`mysql.users\’ doesn\’t existandquot;/andgt;
C. NAME=andquot;Queryandquot;
STATUS=andquot;1146″ SQLTEXT=andquot; Error 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users\’ doesn\’t existandquot;/>
D. NAME=andquot;Errorandquot; STATUS=andquot;1146andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;select user,host from
usersandquot;/andgt;
E. NAME=andquot;Errorandquot; STATUS=andquot;0andquot; SQLTEXT=andquot;Error 1146 (42S02): Table
`mysql.users\’ doesn\’t existandquot;/andgt;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
In a test database, you issue the SELECT … INTO OUTFILE statement to create a file with your t1 table data.
You then TRUNCATE this table to empty it.
Mysqlandgt; SELECT * INTO OUTFILE `/tmp/t1.sql\’ from t1; mysqlandgt; TRUNCATE t1;
Which two methods will restore data to the t1 table?
A. Mysqlandgt; LOAD DATA INFILE `/tmp/t1.sql\’ INTO TABLE t1;
B. $ mysqladmin u root p h localhost test restore /tmp/t1.sql
C. $ mysql u root p h localhost test andlt; /tmp/t1.sql
D. $ mysqlinport u root p h localhost test /tmp/t1.sql
E. Mysqlandgt; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES FROM `/tmp/t1.sql\’;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding partitioning in Mysql?
A. Tables with BLOB and TEXT columns cannot be partitioned.
B. Partitioning allows easier management of smaller data sets for certain queries.
C. Partitioning allows different columns to be stored in separate files.
D. The partitioning expression is an integer or function that returns an integer value or NULL value.
E. Partitioning is only available for those storage engines that implements it natively.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Consider the following table:
REATE TABLE `game\’ (
`id\’ int (10) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT,
`keyword\’ varchar (45) DEFAULT NULL, `date\’ datetime NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (`id\’ , `date\’),
UNIQUE KEY `keyword_idx\’ (`keyword\’ , `date\’)
) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1
PARTITION BY RANGE (TO_DAYS (date) ) (
PARTITION g201301 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-01-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION g201302 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-02-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION g201303 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-03-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION g201304 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-04-01 00:00:00\’) ),
PARTITION gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
Which method should used to add a new g201305 partition to the table?
A. ALTER TABLE games REORGANIZE PARTITION (gMORES) INTO g01305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
B. ALTER TABLE games ADD PARTITION g201350 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS (`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) );
C. ALTER TABLE games COALESCE PARTITION (gMORES) INTO g01305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
D. ALTER TABLE games SPLIT PARTITION (gMORES) INTO g201305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
E. ALTHER TABLE games DROP PATITION gMORES, ADD PARTITION g201305 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS
(`2013-05-01 00:00:00\’) ), gMORES VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE) );
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
A general purpose MySQL instance is configured with the following options:
— log-slow-queries — long-query-time=,0001 — log-slow-admin-queries — general-log — log-bin — binlog-
format=STATEMENT — innodb-flush-log-at-trx-commit=1
Which three statements are true?
A. The General Query Log records more data than the Binary Log.
B. The binary Log records more data than the General Query Log.
C. The Slow Query Log records more data than the General Query Log.
D. The General Query Log records more data than the Slow Query Log.
E. The Slow Query Log records more data than the Binary Log. F. The Binary Log records more data than the Slow Query Log.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 23
Which two capabilities are granted with the SUPER privilege?
A. Allowing a client to kill other client connections
B. Allowing a client to shut down the server
C. Allowing change of the server runtime configuration
D. Allowing client accounts to take over the account of another user
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
What are four capabilities of the mysql client program?
A. Creating and dropping databases
B. Creating, dropping, and modifying tables and indexes
C. Shutting down the server by using the SHUTDOWN command
D. Creating and administering users
E. Displaying replication status information
F. Initiating a binary backup of the database by using the START BACKUP command
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 25
Following a server crash, the automatic recovery of InnoDB fails. How would you begin to manually repair the InnoDB
tables?
A. Start the server with the innodb_force_recovery option set to a non-zero value.
B. Start the server as usual, and then execute the REPAIR TABLE command.
C. Start the server as usual, and then execute the CHECK TABLE command.
D. Start the server with the innodb_recover_options option set to FORCE.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which two statements are true about InnoDB auto-increment locking?
A. The auto-increment lock can be a table-level lock. B. InnoDB never uses table-level locks.
C. Some settings for innodb_autoinc_lock_mode can help reduce locking.
D. InnoDB always protects auto-increment updates with a table-level lock.
E. InnoDB does not use locks to enforce auto-increment uniqueness.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
You are having problems with connections from a specific host (192.168.1.15) not closing down correctly. You want to
find the state of the threads from that host check for long-running queries.
Which statement will accomplish this?
A. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.PROCESSLIST WHERE HOST=\’192.168.1.15\’;
B. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.EVENTS WHERE HOST=\’ 192.168.1.15\’;
C. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.STATISTICS WHERE HOST=\’ 192.168.1.15\’;
D. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.INNODB_METEICS WHERE HOST=\’ 192.168.1.15\’;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
You are attempting to secure a MySQL server by using SSL encryption.
On starting MySQL, you get this error:
130123 10:38:02 [ERROR] mysqld: unknown option `–ssl\’
What is the cause of the error?
A. The — ssl level was not specified.
B. The server was not started with the enable–ssl-plugin option.
C. — ssl is not a valid server option.
D. The mysqld binary was not compiled with SSL support.
E. The server\’s SSL certificate was invalid.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
In a design situation, there are multiple character sets that can properly encode your data. Which three should influence
your choice of character set?
A. Disk usage when storing data
B. Syntax when writing queries involving JOINS C. Comparing the encoded data with similar columns on other tables
D. Memory usage when working with the data
E. Character set mapping index hash size
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 30
The following commands are available in the Linux binary distributions of Mysql:
Mysqld
Mysqld_safe
Mysql.server
What is the correct description of each of these commands?
A.
Mysqld is the server. Mysqld_safe is a shell script that invokes mysqld. Mysql.server is a wrapper for mysql_safe.
B.
Mysqld is a shell script that starts mysql.server. Mysqld_safe causes the server to start up in data recovery mode.
Mysql.server is the server.
C.
Mysqld is the server. Mysqld_safe causes the server to start up in data recovery mode. Mysql.server is a wrapper for
mysqld_safe.
D.
Mysql, mysqld.safe, and mysql.server reside in different locations but are all symlinked to the same script.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL data warehouse.
During peak usage, you discover that the data warehouse fails to meet performance expectations.
You need to provide additional resources to the data warehouse.
What should you do?
A. Create an additional storage pool.
B. Create an elastic database pool.
C. Increase the number of Database Throughput Units (DTUs).
D. Increase the number of Data Warehouse Units (DWUs).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine.
You need to ensure that all SQL Server audits are written to the Windows Security log.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure the Audit policy change policy.
B. Assign the Generate security audits user right.
C. Configure the Audit object access policy.
D. Assign the Log on as a service user right.
E. Configure the Audit the access of global system objects policy.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
You have Microsoft SQL Server installed on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. The virtual machine is on the Standard D3 service tier. All of the data files for the databases on the virtual machine are located on a single volume that is mounted
as drive E.
The virtual machine experiences performance issues.
You view the wait statistics and discover a high number of GEIOLATCH_SH waits associated to the tempdb data files.
You need to resolve the performance issues.
What should you do?
A. Move the tempdb data files to drive D.
B. Move the tempdb data files to drive C.
C. Change the service tier of the virtual machine to Standard D12.
D. Change the service tier of the virtual machine to Standard DS3.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have several SQL Server instances on Microsoft Azure virtual machines.
Periodically, one of the virtual machines runs more slowly than expected. The issue typically persists for up to 30 minutes. You investigate the issue and discover that when the issue occurs, there is high CPU usage on the virtual machines.
You need to be notified automatically when the performance issue occurs. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you configure?
A. extended events to monitor the Processor:%Privileged Time of the virtual machine and SQL Server Agent alerts to notify the operator by sending an email message
B. Azure Diagnostics for the logs on the virtual machine and a rule in Management Services to send you an email message when the CPU usage is more than 80 percent
C. extended events to monitor the Processor:%User Time of the virtual machine and SQL Server Agent alerts to notify the operator by sending an email message
D. an alert rule in the Azure portal to send you an email message when the CPU usage is more than 80 percent for five consecutive minutes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft SQL Server instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine.
The members of an Active Directory group named HelpDesk can log in to the SQL Server instance.
You need to ensure that the members of HelpDesk can query dynamic management views and gather performance metrics from the SQL Server instance.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Add HelpDesk to the db_owner role for all of the databases.
B. Add HelpDesk to the new role.
C. Grant VIEW ANY DATABASE to the new role.
D. Grant VIEW SERVER STATE to the new role.
E. Create a database role.
F. Create a server role.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 6
You deploy a Microsoft SQL Server instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine by using a template.
You plan to deploy a PHP-based app in an Azure web app. The web app will use a database on the virtual machine. The web app and the virtual machine will be on the same Azure virtual network.
You need to ensure that the web app can access the SQL Server database.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Change the SQL Server authentication to mixed mode.
B. Use sp_configure to enable remote access.
C. From the Azure portal, add an endpoint for TCP port 1434.
D. On the virtual machine, enable the inbound connections on TCP port 1433 from Windows Firewall.
E. Restart the SQL Server service.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
You have Microsoft SQL Server 2014 installed on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine.
One of the databases on the virtual machine supports a highly active Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data in the application.
Which two tools can you use to identify the longest running queries? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the Job Activity Monitor
B. Database Engine Tuning Advisor
C. dynamic management views
D. SQL Server Extended Events
E. SQL metrics in Azure Diagnostics for the virtual machine
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Your company has two offices. The offices are located in London and New York.
The London office has a public IP of 131.107.1.1 and a private IP subnet of 192.168.4.0/24. The New York office has a public IP of 131.107.15.1 and a private IP subnet of 192.168.8.0/24.
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that is hosted on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. Currently, only the users in the London office use the database.
You need to create a new firewall rule to provide the users in the New York office with access to the database. The solution must protect the database from being accessed by users on the public Internet.What should you do?
A. Modify the endpoint from the Azure portal.
B. Use the sp_set_database_firewall_rule stored procedure.
C. Disable the Windows Firewall on the Azure virtual machine.
D. Run the New-AzureSqlDatabaseServerFirewallRule Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Use the Set Firewall Rule REST API.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to ensure that you can use the Always Encrypted feature for the database.
Which two components should you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. the Column Master Key
B. the database master key
C. the service master key
D. transparent data encryption (TDE)
E. the Column Encryption Key
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The database is hosted in the West US region and uses the Premium service tier. Users of the database are located in Los Angeles, New York, and Singapore.
The users in Singapore report that when they run reports against the database, the reports take a long time to complete. The reports contain thousands of rows.
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the performance issue. The solution must maintain the performance for the other users. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Move the Azure SQL database from the West US region to the East Asia region.
B. Implement Azure ExpressRoute for the subscription.
C. Configure a readable geo-replica in the East Asia region.
D. Configure pagination for the report.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have an organizational data mart that contains 3.5 TB of uncompressed data.
The size of the data is expected to grow 2 annually. Reporting is performed only during business hours.
You plan to move the data to the cloud.
You need to design a cloud architecture for the data mart. The solution must minimize costs and administrative overhead.
What is the best design to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. a Microsoft Azure SQL data warehouse
B. a Microsoft SQL Server virtual machine
C. a Microsoft Azure HDInsight cluster
D. a Microsoft Azure SQL database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You plan to implement a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to create and manage the new database on a new server.
Which three cmdlets should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. New-AzureSqlDatabaseServer
B. New AzureSqlDatabaseServerFirewallRule
C. New-AzureSqlDatabaseServerContext
D. New-AzureVM
E. New-AzureSqlDatabase
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 13
You have an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database in an AlwaysOn availability group.
You are planning a backup solution for the database. Backups will run on a secondary replica.
You need to create a backup procedure for the database. The solution must ensure that the backups are stored on-premises and in Microsoft Azure Blob storage.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run the BACKUP DATABASE statement and use the TO DISK clause.
B. Run the CREATE DATABASE statement and use the AS COPY OF clause.
C. Run the BACKUP DATABASE statement and use the TO URL clause.
D. Run the BACKUP DATABASE statement and use the MIRROR clause.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You have a hybrid Microsoft SQL Server environment that has multiple servers and services that run in both Microsoft Azure and on-premises.
If the network fails, you need to ensure that users can authenticate and connect to the resources available in Azure.
Which two server roles should you deploy to Azure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution?
A. Active Directory Federation Services
B. Active Directory Certificate Services
C. DHCP Server
D. Active Directory Domain Services
E. DNS Server
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
You have a report that runs against a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
The report takes more time to return results than expected.
You add an index to a table in the database.
You need to identify whether adding the index improves the performance issue.
What should you use?
A. Database Engine Tuning Advisor
B. Index Tuning Wizard
C. Azure Throughput Analyzer
D. Azure SQL Database Index Advisor
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You hire a new employee to assist in the management of a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to ensure that the employee can query dynamic management views.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place

QUESTION 17
You have four Microsoft Azure SQL databases located on the same database server.
You need to configure the databases to be in an elastic database pool.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select

QUESTION 18
You have several instances of Microsoft SQL Server on several Microsoft Azure virtual machines.
You need to implement an automated process to back up all of the virtual machines to an Azure storage account. The process must run weekly.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 19
You have four Microsoft Azure SQL databases.
You need to configure cross-database queries.
Which four statements should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 20
You have an AlwaysOn availability group between several Microsoft Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that the databases meet the following requirements:
The solution must prevent any disruption to replication.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? I answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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QUESTION 1
You have an Azure HDInsight cluster. You need to store data in a file format that maximizes compression and increases read performance. Which type of file format should you use?
A. ORC
B. Apache Parquet
C. Apache Avro
D. Apache Sequence
70-775 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You need to deploy an HDInsight cluster that will provide in-memory processing, interactive queries, and micro-batch stream processing. The cluster has the following requirements: What should you do?
A. Use an Azure PowerShell script to create and configure a premium HDInsight cluster.
Specify Apache Hadoop as the cluster type and use Linux as the operating system.
B. Use the Azure portal to create a standard HDInsight cluster. Specify Apache Spark as the cluster type and use Linux as the operating system.
C. Use an Azure PowerShell script to create a standard HDInsight cluster. Specify Apache HBase as the cluster type and use Windows as the operating system.
D. Use an Azure PowerShell script to create a standard HDInsight cluster. Specify Apache Storm as the cluster type and use Windows as the operating system.
E. Use an Azure PowerShell script to create a premium HDInsight cluster. Specify Apache HBase as the cluster type and use Linux as the operating system.
F. Use an Azure portal to create a standard HDInsight cluster. Specify Apache Interactive Hive as the cluster type and use Linux as the operating system.
G. Use an Azure portal to create a standard HDInsight cluster. Specify Apache HBase as the cluster type and use Linux as the operating system.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. You are planning a big data infrastructure by using an Apache Spark cluster in Azure HDInsight. The cluster has 24 processor cores and 512 GB of memory. The architecture of the infrastructure is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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The architecture will be used by the following users: The data sources in the batch layer share a common storage container. The following data sources are used: You need to ensure that the support analysts can develop embedded analytics applications by using the least amount of development effort. Which technology should you implement?
A. Zeppelin
B. Jupyter
C. Apache Ambari
D. Livy
70-775 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. You are planning a big data infrastructure by using an Apache Spark cluster in Azure HDInsight. The cluster has 24 processor cores and 512 GB of memory. The architecture of the infrastructure is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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The architecture will be used by the following users:
The data sources in the batch layer share a common storage container. The following data sources are used:
The business analysts report that they experience performance issues when they run the monitoring queries.
You troubleshoot the performance issues and discover that the intermediate tables generated when the analysts run the queries cause pressure for the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) garbage collection per job. Which configuration settings should you modify to alleviate the performance issues?
A. spark.sql.inMemoryColumnarStorage.batchSize
B. spark.sql.broadcastTimeout
C. spark.sql.files.openCostInBytes
D. spark.sql.shuffle.partitions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. You have an initial dataset that contains the crime data from major cities. You plan to build training models from the training data. You plan to automate the process of adding more data to the training models and to constantly tune the models by using the additional data, including data that is collected in near real time. The system will be used to analyze event data gathered from many different sources, such as Internet of Things (IoT) devices, live video surveillance, and traffic activities, and to generate predictions of an increased crime risk at a particular time and place. You have an incoming data stream from Twitter and an incoming data stream from Facebook, which are event-based only, rather than time-based. You also have a time interval stream every 10 seconds.
The data is in a key/value pair format. The value field represents a number that defines how many times a hashtag occurs within a Facebook post, or how many times a Tweet that contains a specific hashtag is retweeted. You must use the appropriate data storage, stream analytics techniques, and Azure HDInsight cluster types for the various tasks associated to the processing pipeline.
You are planning a storage strategy for a large amount of analytic data used for the crime data analytics system. The initial data load involves over 100 billion records, and more than two billion records will be added daily. You already created an Apache Hadoop cluster in HDInsight premium. You need to implement the storage strategy to meet the following requirements: What should you create?
A. a virtual machine (VM) by using the Data Science Virtual Machine template for Windows that has premium storage, a G-series size, and uses Microsoft SQL Server 2016 to store the data
B. an Azure Data Lake Analytics service by using Azure PowerShell
C. an Azure Data Lake Store account by using the Azure portal
D. an Azure Blob storage account by using the Azure portal
70-775 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You plan to copy data from Azure Blob storage to an Azure SQL database by using Azure Data Factory. Which file formats can you use?
A. binary, JSON, Apache Parquet, and ORC
B. OXPS, binary, text and JSON
C. XML, Apache Avro, text, and ORC
D. text, JSON, Apache Avro, and Apache Parquet
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are building a security tracking solution in Apache Kafka to parse security logs. The security logs record an entry each time a user attempts to access an application. Each log entry contains the IP address used to make the attempt and the country from which the attempt originated. You need to receive notifications when an IP address from outside of the United States is used to access the application. Solution: Create new topics. Create a file import process to send messages. Start the consumer and run the producer. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-775 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You have an Apache Spark cluster in Azure HDInsight.
You execute the following command.
What is the result of running the command?
A. the Hive ORC library is imported to Spark and external tables in ORC format are created
B. the Spark library is imported and the data is loaded to an Apache Hive table
C. the Hive ORC library is imported to Spark and the ORC-formatted data stored in Apache Hive tables becomes accessible
D. the Spark library is imported and Scala functions are executed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following types of equipment should be used for telecommunications equipment and have an open design?
A. 2j4 post racks
B. Rail Racks
C. Vertical frame
D. Ladder racks
N10-006 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A technician has determined the most likely cause of an issue and implement a solution. Which of the following is the
NEXT step that should be taken?
A. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes
B. Duplicate the problem if possible
C. Verify system functionality
D. Make an archival backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Joe, and administrator, is setting up three more switches in the test lab and is configuring the switches. He is verifying the connectivity but when he pings one of the switches he receives andquot;Destination Unreachableandquot;. Which of the following issues could this be?
A. Denial of service attack
B. Misconfigured DNS settings
C. Misconfigured Split Horizon
D. RADIUSauthenticationerrors
N10-006 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A technician has verified that a recent loss of network connectivity to multiple workstations is due to a bad CAT5 cable in the server room wall. Which of the following tools can be used to locate its physical location within the wall?
A. Cable certifier
B. Multimeter
C. Cabletester
D. Toner probe
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An area to which access is controlled by retina scan is protected by which of the following security measure types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Biometric
C. Cipher locks
D. Optical reader
E. Proximity reader
N10-006 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?
A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A client is concerned about a hacker compromising a network in order to gain access to confidential research dat
A. Which of the following could be implemented to redirect any attackers on the network?
B. DMZ
C. Content Filter
D. Botnet
E. Honeypot
N10-006 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
There has been an increased amount of successful social engineering attacks at a corporate office. Which of the following will reduce this attack in the near future?
A. Helpdesk training
B. Appropriate use policy
C. User awareness training
D. Personal Identifiable Information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following protocols is used to encapsulate other network layer protocols such as multicast and IPX over
WAN connections?
A. MPLS
B. ESP
C. GRE
D. PPP
N10-006 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following network elements enables unified communication devices to connect to and traverse traffic onto the PSTN?
A. Access switch
B. UC gateway
C. UC server
D. Edge router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A technician is being tasked to centralize the management of the switches and segment the switches by broadcast domains. The company is currently all on VLAN1 using a single private IP address range with a 24 bit mask. The supervisor wants VLAN 100 to be the management subnet and all switches to share the VLAN information. Which of the following options would work BEST to accomplish these requirements?
A. Use VLSM on the IP address range, with STP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN100
B. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1x on all inter switch connections with native VLAN100
C. Use VLSM on VLAN1, with VTP and 802.1w on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
D. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A company has added several new employees, which has caused the network traffic to increase by 200%. The network traffic increase from the new employees was only expected to be 20% to 30%. The administration suspects that the network may have been compromised. Which of the following should the network administrator have done previously to minimize the possibility of a network breach?
A. Create VLANs to segment the network traffic
B. Place a network sniffer on segments with new employees
C. Provide end user awareness and training for employees
D. Ensure best practices were implemented when creating new user accounts
N10-006 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is true about the main difference between a web session that uses port 80 and one that uses port 443?
A. Port 80 web sessions often use application-level encryption, while port 443 sessions often use transport-level encryption.
B. Port 80 web session cannot use encryption, while port 443 sessions are encrypted using web certificates.
C. Port 80 web sessions can use web application proxies, while port 443 sessions cannot traverse web application proxies.
D. Port 80 web sessions are prone to man-in-the-middle attacks, while port 443 sessions are immune from man-in- the middle attacks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the main difference between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP data fows in two directions, while UDP data fows from server to client.
B. The TCPheaderimplementsfags, whiletheUDPheader doesnot.
C. The TCP header implements checksum, while the UDP header does not.
D. TCP connections can be secured by stateful firewalls, while UDP connections cannot.
N10-006 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A network administrator needs to allow employees to securely upload files to a remote server. Which of the following should be allowed on the firewall?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 161
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A company has a network with three switches, each one with eight ports. The switch is connected to a router that has a hub with four computers plugged into one of its interfaces. How many broadcast domains are present in this company\’s network
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 16
E. 28
N10-006 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A home office has a dozen devices that need a class based DHCP device to assign addresses. The subnet only has one octet for the host portion of each device. Which of the following IP addresses would be assigned to the default gateway?
A. 10.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A user calls the help desk and states that he was working on a spreadsheet and was unable to print it. However, his colleagues are able to print their documents to the same shared printer. Which of the following should be the FIRST question the helpdesk asks?
A. Does the printer have toner?
B. Are there any errors on the printer display?
C. Is the user able to access any network resources?
D. Is the printer powered up?
N10-006 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?
A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A technician wants to update the organization\’s disaster recovery plans. Which of the following will allow network devices to be replaced quickly in the event of a device failure?
A. Vendor documentation
B. Archivesjbackups
C. Proper asset tagging and labeling
D. Network Baseline
N10-006 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
An outside organization has completed a penetration test for a company. One of the items on the report is reflecting the ability to read SSL traffic from the web server. Which of the following is the MOST likely mitigation for this reported item?
A. Ensure patches are deployed
B. Install an IDS on the network
C. Configure the firewall to block traffic on port 443
D. Implement a VPN for employees
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
The ability to make access decisions based on an examination of Windows registry settings, antivirus software, and AD membership status is an example of which of the following NAC features?
A. Quarantine network
B. Persistent agents
C. Posture assessment
D. Non-persistent agents
N10-006 pdf Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You manage a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) site. You plan to create two collections named Collection1 and Collection2 that have dynamic membership rules. Collection1 will contain all of the servers in the domain. Collection2 will contain only the domain controllers.
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You have a Configuration Manager query that you will use as the basis for creating the collection. The query has the following WQL statement.
You need to complete the statement that will be used for each collection. Which class and attribute should you add in the where clause for each collection? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 2
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence contains steps to install software updates and Applications. The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six months. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image. What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Configuration Manager 2012: Offline Servicing for Operat

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment that contains six servers configured as shown in the following table:
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Server5 and Server6 are in the perimeter network, while Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 are in the internal network.
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Administrators currently apply software updates to servers manually. You discover that Server4 was never updated. You need to centrally manage software updates for all of the servers by using Configuration Manager. What should you do first?
A. Install a management point on Server5.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTPS on Server6.
C. Install a management point on Server2.
D. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server3.
E. Install an enrollment proxy point on Server6.
F. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
G. Configure the Exchange connector on Server3.
H. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
I. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server5.
J. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server3.
K. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
L. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
M. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
N. Install a protected distribution point on Server1.
O. Install a software update point on Server3.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: M
Explanation/Reference:
A WSUS service will simplify and automate software updates for all servers from a single management interface. Note: The software update point is required on the central administration site a

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You write the following query:
Select SYS.Name from SMS_R_System SYS
Join SMS_G_System_ADD_REMOVE_PROGRAMS ARP
On ARP.ResourceId = SYS.ResourceId
You need to create a list of all the client computers that have a version of Visual Studio installed. What should you add to the query?
A. where ARP.DisplayName like andquot;Visual Studio*andquot;
B. where ARP.DisplayName = andquot;*Visual Studio*andquot;
C. where ARP.DisplayName = andquot;%%Visual Studioandquot;
D. where ARP.DisplayName like andquot;Visual studio%andquot;
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You need to use andquot;LIKEandquot; not andquot;=andquot; otherwise the WildCard andquot;%andquot; is seen as a real identifier.

QUESTION 5
Your company has 120,000 client computers.
You plan to deploy System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) to the computers.
You need to install Configuration Manager by using the fewest number of sites possible.
Which site configuration should you use?
A. two individual stand-alone primary sites
B. a single primary site and four secondary sites
C. a stand-alone primary site
D. a Central Administration site and two primary sites
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You can deploy Configuration Manager as a single stand-alone primary site, or as multiple sites in a hierarchy.
Reference: Planning for Sites and Hierarchies in Configuration Man

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Your company has a security policy that contains mandatory registry settings for all servers.
You have a collection named Servers that contains all of the servers.
You need to identify which servers do not comply with the security policy.
What should you do? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-243 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Your company deploys a third-party Application to 10,000 client computers.
You need to ensure that you can run a report that lists all of the client computers that ran the Application last month. What should you do?
A. Modify the Enable hardware inventory on clients setting.
B. Enable a default WMI class in the Hardware Inventory Classes list.
C. Modify the Enable software inventory on clients setting.
D. Add a file name to the Hardware Inventory configuration.
E. Add a WMI class to the Hardware Inventory Classes list.
F. Add a file name to the Software Inventory configuration.
G. Add a file name to Software Metering.
H. Add a WMI class to the Sms_def.mof file.
I. Select Collect NOIDMIF files in Hardware Inventory.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: G
Explanation/Reference:
Introduction to Software Metering in Configuration Manager Use software metering in System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to monitor and collect software usage data from Configuration Manager cli

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. Your company deploys a custom Application to 2,000 client computers by using Configuration Manager. The Application is not listed in Add Remove Programs. You discover that information about the Application fails to appear in the inventory queries and inventory reports. You verify that information about other Applications appear in the inventory reports. You need to ensure that Configuration Manager data includes installation information about the custom Application. What should you do?
A. Add a file name to Software Metering.
B. Add a WMI class to the Hardware Inventory Classes file.
C. Add a file name to the Hardware Inventory configuration.
D. Enable a default WMI Cass in the Hardware Inventory Classes list.
E. Select Collect NOIDMIF files in Hardware Inventory.
F. Add a file name to the Software Inventory configuration.
G. Modify the Enable hardware inventory on Cents setting.
H. Add a WMI class to the Sms_def.mof file.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation/Reference:
Introduction to Software Inventory in Configuration Manager Use software inventory in System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to collect information about files that are contained on client devices

QUESTION 9
You have a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) standalone primary site.
You have a Configuration Manager application named App1 and a Configuration Manager package named Package1.
You need to ensure that App1 and Package1 are deployed only to Windows 8 computers.
In the table below, identify what to configure for App1 and Package1.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.
Hot Area:
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70-243 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Your company has a production network and a test network. Both networks have System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You create the following objects on the test network: A configuration item named SQLServerCI A configuration baseline named SQLServerBaseline that contains the configuration item A collection named SQLServers that contains all of the servers on the test network that run Microsoft SQL Server. You export the configuration baseline to SQLServerBaseline.cab. You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand Compliance Settings. You need to apply the configuration baseline to the servers on the production network that run SQL Server. You create a collection named SQLServers that contains all SQL Servers from the production network. What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click SQLServerCI, select Export, and then specify SQLServer Baseline.cab as the export file.
C. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the SQLServers collection.
D. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
E. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type SQLServers in the Filter…
box.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
C: To import configuration data in Configuration Manager
1.In the Configuration Manager console, click Assets and Compliance.
2.In the Assets and Compliance workspace,

QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) environment.
You deploy a Microsoft Office 2010 package to all client computers by using Configuration Manager.
Your company purchases Office 2013.
You need to ensure that all users can install Office 2013 from the Application Catalog. What should you do?
A. Deploy a new application for Office 2013.
B. Deploy a new package for Office 2013.
C. Deploy Office 2013 by using a Group Policy Object (GPO).
D. Update the Office 2010 source file and redeploy the package.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: How-to: Deploying Microsoft Office 2013 using SCCM 2012 https://gallery.technet.microsoft.com/office/How
to-Deploying-Office-0f954e7f
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  • Design and plan System Center Configuration Manager infrastructure (10–15%)
  • Manage operating system deployment (OSD) (10–15%)
  • Deploy applications and software updates (10–15%)
  • Manage compliance settings (10–15%)
  • Manage sites (10–15%)
  • Manage clients (10–15%)
  • Manage inventory (10–15%)
  • Manage reports and queries (10–15%)

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Question No : 22 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You need to create and configure a hierarchical address book (HAB) named Litware to reflect the company’s organizational chart. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Question No : 23 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You are planning the upgrade to Exchange Server 2013. You plan to perform the following tasks: Identify the number of email messages sent and received by the users in the current Exchange Server organization. Identify how many IOPS are required to provide adequate access to mailboxes for all of the users in the planned organization. Validate that all of the planned servers will meet the IOPS requirements of the planned organization. You need to identify which tool must be used to achieve each task. Which tools should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct task in the answer area. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 24 – (Topic 3)
You are testing the planned implementation of Exchange Server 2013. After you begin moving several mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013, you discover that users on the internal network that have been moved are prompted repeatedly for their credentials when they run Microsoft Outlook. You run the Get-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet on CH-EX4, and receive the following output:
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You need to prevent the internal users from being prompted for their credentials when they connect to their mailbox by using Outlook. Which property should you modify by using the Set-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet?
A. IISAuthenticationMethods
B. InternalHostname
C. ExternalHostname
D. ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod
E. InternalClientAuthenticationMethod
070-341 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
InternalClientAuthenticationMethod is NTLM
Windows Challenge/Response (NTLM) is the authentication protocol used on networks that include systems running the Windows operating system and on stand-alone systems. NTLM credentials are based on data obtained during the interactive logon process and
consist of a domain name, a user name, and a one-way hash of the user’s password. NEED TO CONVERT THE INTERNALCLIENTAUTHENTICATIONMETHOD TO BASIS NOT NTLM IN ORDER TO FIX THE ISSUE. USE IISAUTHENTICATIONMETHODS PARAMETER IN ORDER TO ACHIEVE THIS. Set-OutlookAnywhere Use the Set-OutlookAnywhere cmdlet to modify the properties on a computer running Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 enabled for Microsoft Outlook Anywhere.
EXAMPLE 1
This example sets the client authentication method to NTLM for the /rpc virtual directory on the Client Access server CAS01.
Set-OutlookAnywhere -Identity:CAS01\rpc (Default Web Site) – ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod:Ntlm
PARAMETERS
The IISAuthenticationMethods parameter specifies the authentication method enabled on the /rpc virtual directory in Internet Information Services (IIS). You can set the virtual directory to allow Basic authentication or NTLM authentication. Alternatively, you can also set the virtual directory to allow both Basic and NTLM authentication. All other authentication methods are disabled.
You may want to enable both Basic and NTLM authentication if you’re using the IIS virtual directory with multiple applications that require different authentication methods. The InternalHostname parameter specifies the internal hostname for the Outlook Anywhere
virtual directory. The ExternalHostname parameter specifies the external host name to use in the Microsoft Outlook profiles for users enabled for Outlook Anywhere. The ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod parameter specifies the authentication method used for external client authentication. Possible values include:
Basic
Digest
Ntlm
Fba
WindowsIntegrated
LiveIdFba
LiveIdBasic
LiveIdNegotiate
WSSecurity
Certificate
NegoEx
OAuth
Adfs
Kerberos
Negotiate
Misconfigured
The InternalClientAuthenticationMethod parameter specifies the authentication method used for internal client authentication. Possible values
include:
Basic
Digest
Ntlm
Fba
WindowsIntegrated
LiveIdFba
LiveIdBasic
LiveIdNegotiate
WSSecurity
Certificate
NegoEx
OAuth
Adfs
Kerberos
Negotiate
Misconfigured
Set-OutlookAnywhere: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 25 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)
You need to identify which external namespaces must be used for the Exchange servers in each office. Which external namespaces should you identify for each office? To answer, drag the appropriate namespace to the correct office in the answer area. Each
namespace may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 26 HOTSPOT – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for mailbox size restrictions. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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Question No : 27 DRAG DROP – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for email message recovery. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, configure the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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Question No : 28 – (Topic 4)
You are evaluating the planned deployment of the additional Exchange Server 2013 servers. You need to recommend changes to the DNS records to ensure that email messages are routed to the Detroit site if the servers in the New York site are unavailable. What should you recommend adding?
A. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX4
B. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX4
C. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX3
D. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX3
070-341 dumps Answer: B
Explanation: Configure Exchange to Accept Mail for Multiple Authoritative Domains: Exchange 2013 Help MX (mail exchange) Specifies a mail exchange server for the domain, which allows mail to be delivered to the correct mail servers in the domain. Managing DNS Records

Question No : 29 – (Topic 4)
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the issue of email messages not being received on the Internet. What should you include in the solution?
A. Modify the CNAME record.
B. Add an MX record.
C. Modify the TXT record.
D. Add a pointer (PTR) record.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detroit and New York users have direct connection to the internet but not Chicago users. It appears that via a Send Connector Chicago email is sent to New York mail server. Given this then the spf txt record listing the New York mail server is correct (131.107.1.200)
and there should not be any issues with the Chicago email Once the planned changes have been implemented then the DNS txt record would have to accommodate the Detroit Mail server (EX3) (131.107.2.200) in order for the email to function correctly for Detroit users.
However the question relates to Chicago users not Detroit users.
CNAME record
A Canonical Name or CNAME record is a type of DNS record that links an alias name to another canonical domain name. You’ll need to configure CNAME records if you want to use URL forwarding to create a custom web address, forward a URL to Google Sites, or forward a naked domain URL, as well as verify your site with your domain name provider. Lastly, you may need to use CNAME records to reset the administrator password if you can’t access the Google Apps control panel because you’ve forgotten the administrator
password. Your CNAME records are stored in the DNS Zone File as pairs of key values. The value of a CNAME record is always a domain name. CNAME records are often used to create subdomains. CNAME records are useful because they allow you to set up an alias to a server without using its IP address, through an intermediary standard domain name.
MX Record
MX records are DNS settings associated with your domain that direct its mail to the servers hosting your users’ mail accounts. These settings are managed by your domain host, not by Google. To make sure mail always gets delivered, you typically create records for multiple servers, all of which can deliver mail to users. That way, if one server is down, mail can be routed to another server, instead. You determine which servers get tried first by assigning priorities, using values like 10, 20, 30, and so on. The lowest value gets highest priority.
PTR Record
A DNS PTR record – for those of you who are wondering – is a special entry in the Domain Name System (DNS) that basically maps an IP address (like 65.55.12.249) to a domain name. Having a DNS PTR record for your IP address is (somewhat) a sign of reliability in the Internet, since only the owner of a specific network zone has the ability to create and edit these DNS records. Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS PTR entry: because of this reason, always suggest to make sure your public servers IP addresses have DNS PTR records configured properly. While EmailVerify.NET can validate email addresses even without a DNS PTR entry configured, the quality of the validation results in this event may be suboptimal.
TXT Record
A TXT record is an entry within the Domain Name System (DNS) that provides supplemental information about your domain.
A TXT (text) record is used to hold some text information. You can put virtually any free text you want within a TXT record.
A TXT record has a hostname so that you can assign the free text to a particular hostname/zone.
The most common use for TXT records is to store SPF (sender policy framework) records and to prevent emails being faked to appear to have been sent from you. The name field of the SPF record should be left blank unless mail is sent from a subdomain
such as username@mail.example-1.com. If this was the case “mail” would be entered in the name field of the record. Alternatively, of email is sent from username@example-1.com, the name field is left blank. The data field of the record is populated with the list of hosts that are permitted to send email for the domain in SPF record format. There are wizards which can assist in generating an SPF record available. The data field of the record must be enclosed in quotations so servers will read the value as a single string. Below is a default SPF record for example-1.com.
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NOT A
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record.
NOT B
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record.
NOT C
Need to modify the txt record for Detroit email users but not apparently for chicago email users.
D
Today, most mail exchangers will check this record for each incoming connection and may abort the communication if they find your IP address does not have an associated DNS
PTR entry:
Need a ptr record. Managing DNS Records

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QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
 352-001 dumps
In this design, which technology would provide for the best use of resources to provide end-to- end Layer 2 connectivity?
A. MSTP
B. PAgP
C. Multichassis EtherChannel
D. LACP
352-001 exam 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What are three key design principles when using a classic hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
A. The core layer controls access to resources for security.
B. The core layer should be configured with minimal complexity.
C. The core layer is designed first, followed by the distribution layer and then the access layer.
D. A hierarchical network design model aids fault isolation.
E. The core layer provides server access in a small campus.
F. A hierarchical network design facilitates changes.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 21
Which three techniques can be used to improve fault isolation in an enterprise network design? (Choose three.)
A. aggregate routing information on an OSPF ABR
B. fully meshed distribution layer
C. Equal-Cost Multipath routing
D. EIGRP query boundaries
E. multiple IS-IS flooding domains
F. tuned Spanning Tree Protocol timers
352-001 dumps 
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 22
When you design a network, when would it be required to leak routes into a Level 1 area?
A. when a multicast RP is configured in the nonbackbone area
B. when MPLS L3VPN PE devices are configured in the Level 1 areas
C. when equal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas
D. when unequal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
 352-001 dumps

In this network design, where should summarization occur to provide the best summarization and optimal paths during a single-failure incident as well as during normal operation?
A. a single identical summary for all the branch offices placed on routers 1A, 1B, 2A, and 2B
B. two summaries on 1A and 1B, and two summaries on 2A and 2B
C. a single identical summary on 3A and 3B
D. a single summary on each aggregation device for the branches connected to them
352-001 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What are two benefits of following a structured hierarchical and modular design? (Choose two.)
A. Each component can be designed independently for its role.
B. Each component can be managed independently based on its role.
C. Each component can be funded by different organizations based on its role.
D. Each component can support multiple roles based on the requirements.
E. Each component can provide redundancy for applications and services.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
In a large enterprise network with multiple data centers and thousands of access devices, OSPF is becoming unstable due to link flapping. The current design has the access devices multihomed to large aggregation routers at each of the data centers. How would you redesign the network to improve stability?
A. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers.
B. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers.
C. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device.
D. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device.
352-001 vce 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
During a network design review, it is recommended that the network with a single large area should be broken up into a backbone and multiple nonbackbone areas. There are differing opinions on how many ABRs are needed for each area for redundancy. What would be the impact of having additional ABRs per area?
A. There is no impact to increasing the number of ABRs.
B. The SPF calculations are more complex.
C. The number of externals and network summaries are increased.
D. The size of the FIB is increased.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
A large enterprise customer is migrating thousands of retail offices from legacy TDM circuits to an Ethernet-based service. The network is running OSPF and has been stable for many years. It is now possible to backhaul the circuits directly to the data centers, bypassing the regional aggregation routers. Which two networking issues need to be addressed to ensure stability with the new design? (Choose two.)
A. Nothing will change if the number of offices is the same.
B. Nothing will change if the number of physical interfaces stays the same.

C. The RIB will increase significantly.
D. The FIB will increase significantly.
E. The amount of LSA flooding will increase significantly.
F. The size of the link-state database will increase significantly.
352-001 exam 
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
 352-001 dumps

The design is being proposed for use within the network. The CE devices are OSPF graceful restart-capable, and the core devices are OSPF graceful restart aware. The WAN advertisements received from BGP are redistributed into OSPF. A forwarding supervisor failure event takes place on CE A. During this event, how will the routes learned from the WAN be seen on the core devices?
A. via CE A and CE B
B. via CE A
C. via CE B
D. no WAN routes will be accessible
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
 352-001 dumps
How would you adjust the design to improve convergence on the network?
A. Add an intra-POP link between routers 1A and 1B, and enable IP LFA FRR.
B. Use an IP SLA between the end stations to detect path failures.
C. Enable SSO-NSF on routers 1A and 1B.
D. Use BGP to connect the sites over the WAN.
352-001 dumps 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
A company requests that you consult with them regarding the design of their production, development, and test environments. They indicate that the environments must communicate effectively, but they must be kept separate due to the inherent failures on the development network. What will be configured on the links between the networks to support their design requirements?
A. IBGP
B. EBGP
C. OSPF
D. static routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Who is responsible for ensuring that information is categorized and that specific protective measures are taken?
A. The security officer
B. Senior management
C. The end user
D. The custodian
352-001 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Routine administration of all aspects of security is delegated, but top management must retain overall responsibility. The security officer supports and implements information security for senior management. The end user does not perform categorization. The custodian supports and implements information security measures as directed.

QUESTION 32
An organization’s board of directors has learned of recent legislation requiring organizations within the industry to enact specific safeguards to protect confidential customer information.What actions should the board take next?
A. Direct information security on what they need to do
B. Research solutions to determine the proper solutions
C. Require management to report on compliance
D. Nothing; information security does not report to the board
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security governance is the responsibility of the board of directors and executive management. In this instance, the appropriate action is to ensure that a plan is in place for implementation of needed safeguards and to require updates on that implementation.

QUESTION 33
Information security should be:
A. focused on eliminating all risks.
B. a balance between technical and business requirements.

C. driven by regulatory requirements.
D. defined by the board of directors.
352-001 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security should ensure that business objectives are met given available technical capabilities, resource constraints and compliance requirements. It is not practical or feasible to eliminate all risks. Regulatory requirements must be considered, but are inputs to the business considerations. The board of directors does not define information security, but provides direction in support of the business goals and objectives.

QUESTION 34
What is the MOST important factor in the successful implementation of an enterprise wide information security program?
A. Realistic budget estimates
B. Security awareness
C. Support of senior management
D. Recalculation of the work factor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Without the support of senior management, an information security program has little chance of survival. A company’s leadership group, more than any other group, will more successfully drive the program. Their authoritative position in the company is a key factor. Budget approval, resource commitments, and companywide participation also require the buy-in from senior management. Senior management is responsible for providing an adequate budget and the necessary resources. Security awareness is important, but not the most important factor. Recalculation of the work factor is a part of risk management.

QUESTION 35
What is the MAIN risk when there is no user management representation on the Information Security Steering Committee?
A. Functional requirements are not adequately considered.
B. User training programs may be inadequate.
C. Budgets allocated to business units are not appropriate.
D. Information security plans are not aligned with business requirements
352-001 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The steering committee controls the execution of the information security strategy, according to the needs of the organization, and decides on the project prioritization and the execution plan. User management is an important group that should be represented to ensure that the information security plans are aligned with the business needs. Functional requirements and user training programs are considered to be part of the projects but are not the main risks. The steering committee does not approve budgets for business units.

QUESTION 36
The MAIN reason for having the Information Security Steering Committee review a new security controls implementation plan is to ensure that:
A. the plan aligns with the organization’s business plan.
B. departmental budgets are allocated appropriately to pay for the plan.
C. regulatory oversight requirements are met.
D. the impact of the plan on the business units is reduced.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The steering committee controls the execution of the information security strategy according to the needs of the organization and decides on the project prioritization and the execution plan. The steering committee does not allocate department budgets for business units. While ensuring that regulatory oversight requirements are met could be a consideration, it is not the main reason for the review. Reducing the impact on the business units is a secondary concern but not the main reason for the review.

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QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic locations. The service locations may change. You must minimize the cost of communication between services. You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

70-534 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands. You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
You are designing an Azure web application. All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:

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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of least privilege. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 16 The chief operations officer (COO) has questioned the need for end-user training. Which of the following is the most effective response?
A.Indicate that you will not be responsible for the next virus outbreak.
B.Remind the CEO about the last virus attack and the expense incurred.
C.Explain that the cost of end-user training is a fraction of the cost of the last security breach caused by end users.
D.Provide statistics that definitively show how end-user training reduces the likelihood of security breaches on the corporate network.
70-534 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 17 Consider the following sequence:
user1@zeppelin:/public$ su –
root@zeppelin:# chmod 1777 /public
root@zeppelin:# exit
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of this command?
A.Only the root user can create and delete files in the /public directory.
B.All users can create, delete and read files in the /public directory, but only root has execute permissions.
C.All users can create and read files in the /public directory, but only root can delete another user’s file.
D.Any user can create files in the / directory, but no user can delete a file in this directory unless root permissions are obtained.
Answer: C

QUESTION 18 What is the first step of a gap analysis?
A.Scan the firewall.
B.Review antivirus settings.
C.Review the security policy.
D.Review intrusion-detection software settings.
70-534 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 19 Consider the following firewall rules: Incoming traffic:
TCP Port 25
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
Outgoing traffic:
TCP Ports 1024 through 65,535 to port 80: Denied
TCP Port 80: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied

UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
All company production servers reside behind the corporate firewall. However, you discover that the Web server performance is very low. After sniffing the traffic to the Web server, you learn that the Web server is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service attack in which millions of ping packets are being directed at the server. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for this situation?
A.There is a flaw in the firewall rule set.
B.The firewall is not configured to block ICMP packets generated by the ping command.
C.The attack is originating from a wireless access point (WAP) connected to the corporate network.
D.The attack is originating from a Web server that has not been properly updated, and which has been infected with a Trojan horse.
Answer: C

QUESTION 20 A Linux system running Apache Server has received millions of SYN packets that it can no longer respond to, because the client’s operator is maliciously withholding thenecessary reply packet. What is the most common solution for this problem?
A.Implement SSL.
B.Implement SYN cookie support.
C.Upgrade the TCP/IP stack with new software.
D.Upgrade the operating system to support IPsec.
70-534 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 21 Two routers in your company network require a firmware upgrade. Which of the following upgrade strategies will reduce downtime?
A.Conducting the upgrade while the routers are still running
B.Upgrading the routers using the latest upgrade software
C.Conducting the upgrade after rebooting the router
D.Upgrading the routers after business hours
Answer: D

QUESTION 22 You and your team have created a security policy document that is 120 pages long. Which of the following techniques will help ensure that upper-level managers read the essential policy elements?
A.Including a sign-off sheet
B.Including an executive summary
C.Using bold type to emphasize essential elements
D.Using italic type to emphasize essential elements
70-534 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 23 Which of the following is a main function of a company’s information security policy?
A.It obligates the IT department to basic services.
B.It defines basic responsibilities for all stakeholders.
C.It defines the responsibilities of employees and managers.
D.It defines basic responsibilities for executive management.
Answer: B

QUESTION 24 After consulting with the IT department, you have determined that a particular security solution is quite effective for protecting a particular resource, but not necessary due to the expense. Which of the following was conducted to enable this conclusion?
A.Risk analysis
B.Cost-to-benefit analysis
C.Physical security analysis
D.Resource priority analysis
70-534 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 25 You want to learn more about a security breach that was recently discovered in a Windows server. Which organization should you consult?
A.ISO
B.SANS
C.CERT
D.IETF
Answer: C

QUESTION 26 Your supervisor asks you to recommend a firewall. The firewall must provide the following services: The ability to filter specific traffic types (e.g., HTTP, SIP, POP3) User authenticationWeb page caching for later use Which type of firewall would you recommend?
A.Proxy
B.Stateful
C.Packet filter
D.Circuit-based
70-534 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 27 Which type of firewall provides a DMZ?
A.Dual-homed
B.Router-based
C.Single-homed
D.Screened-subnet
Answer: D

QUESTION 28 Company employees have noticed that the quality of voice calls on their Cisco IP phones is greatly reduced at various times during the day. After investigating the problem, you notice that the times when voice quality is reduced coincides with heavy e-mail traffic. Which of the following can you implement on the firewall to alleviate this problem?
A.Stateful inspection
B.Quality of Service (QoS)
C.Network address translation (NAT)
D.Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
70-534 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 29  Consider the following firewall rules:
Incoming traffic:
TCP Port 25: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
Outgoing traffic:
TCP Ports 1024 through 65,535 to port 80: Denied
ICMP echo request: Denied
ICMP echo reply: Denied
TCP Port 139: Denied
UDP Port 137: Denied
UDP Port 138: Denied
All company production servers reside behind the corporate firewall. However, you discover that the Web server performance is very low. After sniffing the traffic to the Web server, you learn that the Web server is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service attack in which millions of ping packets are being directed at the server. Which is the most plausible explanation for this situation?
A.There is a flaw in the firewall rule set.
B.The attack is being conducted from an internal host.
C.The Web server has been infected with a Trojan horse.
D.The firewall is not configured to block ICMP packets generated by the ping command.
Answer: B

QUESTION 30 A packet is being sent from one computer to the next. This packet is being processed by an application designed to encrypt sensitive data. One of the duties of this application is to ensure that a packet has not been altered by an intruder. Which type of encryption is this application most likely to use to achieve this goal?
A.One-time pad

B.Hash encryption
C.Symmetric-key encryption
D.Asymmetric-key encryption
70-534 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 31 Which of the following is responsible for encrypting the data packets encapsulated in an SSL-enabled HTTP session?
A.One-way encryption B.One
time pad (OTP) C.Symmetric
key encryption D.Asymmetric
key encryption Answer: C

QUESTION 32 You have used an application called PGP to protect the contents of an e-mail message. Which technology is used to encrypt the key that protects the data in the e-mail message?
A.Symmetric-key encryption
B.Asymmetric-key encryption
C.Diffie-Hellman key exchange protocol
D.Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
70-534 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 33 Your Web browser issued a warning message that a certificate has not been signed by a recognized authority. This fact indicates that:
A.an attack is in progress.
B.the ensuing session will not be encrypted.
C.the Certificate Authority (CA) has revoked the certificate.
D.the browser does not recognize the Certificate Authority (CA).
Answer: D

QUESTION 34 A device that provides voice and fax services between your local LAN and the Internet has been installed in the DMZ of your network. However, you cannot send or receive faxes. Which of the following steps is most likely going to solve this problem, while still protecting your network resources?
A.Configure the fax device to use the T.441 protocol.
B.Configure your firewall to allow the T.38 protocol.
C.Move the fax device off the firewall and make it directly accessible to the Internet.
D.Configure your firewall to forward all UDP-based packets from the Internet to the company PBX.
70-534 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 35 Employee computers have been attacked repeatedly. The attacker appears to be working internally, and has been able to scan internal systems for weaknesses. Which of the following will best help you stop these attacks?
A.Installing Webcams
B.Upgrading antivirus software
C.Installing desktop firewalls
D.Establishing a regular auditing schedule
Answer: C

QUESTION 36 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
70-534 exam 
Answer: A

QUESTION 37 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer:A

QUESTION 38 Which of the following is true when Cognos 8 gateway receives a request?
A. Requests are passed directly to the Cognos content manager.
B. A connection is created to the database server.
C. The requests are directed to Access Manager.
D. Passwords are encrypted to ensure security.
70-534 dumps 
Answer: D

QUESTION 39 Which of the following is true about Cognos 8 dispatchers?
A. Requests can be routed to specific dispatchers based on packages or user group requirements.
B. Each Java Virtual Machine (JVM) can have multiple dispatchers.
C. The administrator must register a new dispatcher manually.
D. Dispatchers cannot be managed as part of a folder set.
Answer: A

QUESTION 40 What is a portlet?
A. The routing subsection of a listener port.
B. A mechanism for displaying web content as part of a portal page.
C. A credential that is stored on the Web server.
D. A credential that is stored for the session only.
70-534 pdf
Answer: B

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