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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 383

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Question No : 21 Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
300-075 exam Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 22  What happens when a user logs in using the Cisco Extension Mobility Service on a device for which the user has no user device profile?
A. The Extension Mobility log in fails.
B. The device takes on the default device profile for its type.
C. The user can log in but does not have access to any features, soft key templates, or button templates.
D. The device uses the first device profile assigned to the user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: B
Question No : 23  When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
300-075 dump Answer: A
Question No : 24  Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.
Answer: A,C
Question No : 25  Which two statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility are true? (Choose two.)
A. After an autogenerated device profile is created, you can associate it with one or more users.
B. An autogenerated device profiles can be loaded on a device at the same time as a user profile.
C. A device can adopt a user profile even when no user is logged in.
D. A device profile has most of the same attributes as a physical device.
E. Devices can be configured to allow more than one user to be logged in at the same time.
300-075 pdf Answer: B,C
Reference:
Question No : 26  Which component is needed to set up SAF CCD?
A. SAF-enabled H.323 intercluster (gatekeeper controlled) trunk
B. SAF forwarders on Cisco routers
C. Cisco Unified Communications cluster
D. SAF-enabled H.225 trunk
Answer: B
Question No : 27  Which option is known as the location attribute that the global dialplan replication uses to advertise its dial plan information?
A. location controller
B. route pattern
C. route string
D. URI
300-075 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class First
{
string name;
public:
First() {
name = “Alan”;
}
void Print(){
cout << name;
}
};
int main()
{
First ob1,*ob2;
ob2 = new First();

ob1.Print();
ob2?>Print();
}
A. Garbage value
B. It prints: AlanAlan
C. It prints: Alan
D. It prints: Al
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
What will the variable “age” be in class B?
class A {
int x;
protected:
int y;
public:
int age;
};
class B : protected A {
string name;
public:
void Print() {
cout << name << age;
}

};
A. public
B. private
C. protected
D. None of these
300-075 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 30
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
const int x=20;
const int *ptr;
ptr = &x;
*ptr = 10;
cout<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 20
B. It prints: 10
C. Compilation error at line 8
D. It prints address of ptr
Answer: C
QUESTION: 31
Scenario
Additional Information
Chief Executive Officer (CEO): He started the company 25 years ago and knows his job very well. He injured his leg two years ago which has restricted his visits to the engineering area. As CEO he has an overall perspective of the business strategic requirements and the authority to commit resources as required. Marketing Director: She has been with the company for three years, following a
successful career with a publicity company. She has the ability to represent the needs of the business, particularly as this is a marketing project. She has the authority to commit the annual business marketing budget, from which the project will be funded, as she sees appropriate. She will be responsible for monitoring the expected benefits of the calendar, in particular the improvement of
the company’s image. Engineering Manager: He has been responsible for many engineering innovations in the company and is still as keen and energetic as the day he started. VVhilst he will not be part of the project team, his staff will feature in the photos for the
promotional calendar. Central Records: This group of five staff looks after all company records and document control. They now maintain all project files. Bright Lights: This is the local office supplies company. It supplies all the stationery and office equipment needs of the company and will supply the stationery for this project. Portraits ltd: This is a professional photographic company with a number of excellent photographers and a history of successful work. This company has been selected to take the photos for the company calendar. It has yet be decided which of the photographers to use. Which 2 statements explain why the Sales Manager should be appointed as a Senior User for this project?
A. He joined the company last year with huge enthusiasm.
B. He would like to move into the Marketing department in the future and sees this as an opportunity to work closely with the Marketing Director.
C. The launch of a company calendar will impact the Sales department.
D. He reports directly to the Marketing Director.
E. He is able to represent current and prospective customer interests.

300-075 dump Answer: C, E
QUESTION: 32
Scenario
Additional Information
Chief Executive Officer (CEO): He started the company 25 years ago and knows his job very well. He injured his leg two years ago which has restricted his visits to the engineering area. As CEO he has an overall perspective of the business strategic requirements and the authority to commit resources as required. Marketing Director: She has been with the company for three years, following a
successful career with a publicity company. She has the ability to represent the needs of the business, particularly as this is a marketing project. She has the authority to commit the annual business marketing budget, from which the project will be funded, as she sees appropriate. She will be responsible for monitoring the expected benefits of the calendar, in particular the improvement of
the company’s image. Engineering Manager: He has been responsible for many engineering innovations in the company and is still as keen and energetic as the day he started. VVhilst he will not be part of the project team, his staff will feature in the photos for the
promotional calendar. Central Records: This group of five staff looks after all company records and document control. They now maintain all project files. Bright Lights: This is the local office supplies company. It supplies all the stationery and office equipment needs of the company and will supply the stationery for this project. Portraits ltd: This is a professional photographic company with a number of excellent photographers and a history of successful work. This company has been selected to take the photos for the company calendar. It has yet be decided which of the photographers to use. Which 2 statements explain why the Purchasing Manager should be appointed as a Senior Supplier for this project?
A. He is responsible for the organization’s procurement activates.
B. He is responsible for the performance of supplier contracts.
C. He was an engineer and worked in that area before taking up his current position.
D. He can influence the external supplier’s Business Case.
E. He is not appropriate for the role of Executive or Senior User.
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION NO: 60
Which two statements are true about OnTimer triggers? (Choose two.)
A. They only run when the application is idle.
B. OnTimer triggers are configured in the File Options dialog.
C. Different OnTimer scripts can be installed in different windows.
D. Days and times can be specified when the OnTimer script activates.
210-451 exam Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
A file has the following script specified for OnLastWindowClose:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Exit Script [Result; False]
Commit Records/Requests [No dialog]
Assume the Layout Setup dialog for the current layout is set to Save record changes automatically. When a user attempts to close the file, what will be the result?
A. The file will close and the current record will be committed.
B. The file will close and the current record will not be committed.
C. The file will remain open and the current record will be committed.
D. The file will remain open and the current record will not be committed
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
Which statement is true regarding layout themes in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Changing a layout theme may reposition a field on the layout to align it to the theme’s default grid
B. Objects with custom styles applied using the Inspector will be unaffected by changing a layout’s theme.
C. A layout theme determines the padding space (vertical and horizontal) surrounding content for displaying text and container fields.
D. Clicking an object while holding the Command (Mac OS X) or Control (Windows) key will reset the default object style for any new objects of the same type on that layout.
210-451 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which statement is true regarding applying object styles in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. The Format Painter will only apply styles to objects on the same layout.
B. The Format Painter cannot be used to apply the style of one layout part to another.
C. The Format Painter tool can only apply styles associated with the Normal State of an object.
D. The Copy Object Style and Paste Object Style buttons of the Inspector will only work among
layouts of the same file.
E. Holding down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS X) key while clicking the Copy Object Style button in Inspector will only copy the styles for the currently selected object state.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Which two statements are true regarding object styles in FileMaker 12? (Choose two.)
A. A text box will not display Hover state styles.
B. The Alternate Record state is unique to the Body part.
C. Only the Normal State is recognized for object styles in FileMaker Go 12.
D. Only the Normal State will function in Table View for fields in the Body part.
E. Hover state styles for a field will supersede Conditional Formatting styles when a mouse pointer is hovering over the field.
210-451 pdf Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Which two statements are true if a file is configured with an OnWindowOpen script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. The script will be triggered when a file is first opened.
B. A script parameter can be passed to name the new window.
C. The script will not be triggered when a Dialog Window (Modal) is opened.
D. The script will be triggered when a snapshot link file is used to open the file.
E. The action of opening the window can be canceled by use of the Exit Script [False] script step
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 66
Which two statements are true about script triggers? (Choose two.)
A. Layout script triggers can be activated by scripts.
B. An object can have only one script trigger associated with it.
C. Script triggers can only be assigned to field objects and tab controls.
D. Object script triggers will not activate if the layout is set to Table view.
E. A script trigger can be set to activate when the user switches between tab panels.
210-451 vce Answer: A,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67
Assume the user has full privileges to view and modify all data in the file. Which two statements
are true in this situation? (Choose two.)
A. The Name Last field is in the Header part.
B. The user will be able to edit the contents of z_TempText in Table view.
C. If viewed as a form in Browse mode, Quick Find will ignore the data in the Name Last field.
D. The Name Last field will be excluded from the list of available fields in the Sort Records… dialog
for the Current Layout
E. The Activities portal, Name Last field, and z_TempText field are within the page boundary and
thus will be included when printed in Form view.
F. The script step insert Text [Select; Customer:: z_TempText; “Complete”] will result in Error 102
(“Field is missing”) and z_TempText will be empty

Explanation:
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 68
Given the following function:
Substitute (myText ; [“abc” ; “XYZ”] ; [ “XY2” ; “abc”])
If the field myText contains “abc-xyz”, what is the result?
A. abc-abc
B. abc-xyz
C. XYZ-abc
D. XYZ-xyz
210-451 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
What can be done with an ExecuteSOL calculation function?
A. Count the number of unique values in a field from a set of related records.
B. Populate a field in a set of related records with the result of a calculation function.
C. Find the number of records in the current found set that match certain query criteria.
D. Insert a new record into a table and populate it with values from global script variables.
210-451 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
Given a custom function created in FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced defined as Explode (str):
What is the result of Explode (“Bob”)?
A. BoB
B.
BBoBo
C. BBBo
D. BBoBob
E. BobBoB
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Q&As: 254

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QUESTION 24
Which threat-detection feature is used to keep track of suspected attackers who create connections to too many hosts or ports?
A. complex threat detection
B. scanning threat detection
C. basic threat detection
D. advanced threat detection
300-206 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
What is the default behavior of an access list on the Cisco ASA security appliance?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access-list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. An access group must be configured before the access list will take effect for traffic control.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which three commands can be used to harden a switch? (Choose three.)
A. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
B. switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping
C. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 900
D. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree guard root
E. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard disable
F. switch(config-if)# no cdp enable
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
On the STP network as shown in the figure, which device may be the blocked port belong to?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
QinQ provides a simplified Layer 2 VPN tunnel.
A. True
B. False
300-206 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which statements about QinQ are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.
B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the
VLANs on its private network.
C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to
be modified.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Some vendors set the TPID value in the outer VLAN tag of QinQ packets to the non-protocol value.
To be compatible with these vendors’ devices, the TPID value on Huawei switches is adjustable.
Which is the default value of the TPID value on Huawei switches?
A. 0x9200
B. 0x9100
C. 0x8200
D. 0x8100
300-206 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which types of interfaces can be configured with selective QinQ? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Access interface
B. Trunk interface
C. Hybrid interface
D. dot1q-tunnel interface
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
The STP protocol can prevent broadcast storms caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
300-206 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The STP protocol cannot prevent MAC address table flapping caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which are the port roles defined in STP?
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. All of the above
300-206 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
How many port states are defined by STP?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Each STP switch has a unique switch ID. Which two entries does the switch ID contain?
A. Two-byte switch priority
B. Six-byte MAC address
C. Two-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
D. Six-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
300-206 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which statements about the MUX VLAN configuration are true? (Select 2 Answers)
[Quidway]vlan 10

[Quidway-vlan10]mux-vlan
[Quidway-vlan10]subordinate group 11
[Quidway-vlan10]subordinate separate 12
A. VLAN 10 is the principal VLAN
B. VLAN 11 is the principal VLAN
C. VLAN 12 is the subordinate separate VLAN
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 40
When configuring VLAN mapping, you must set the priority of outer VLAN ID.
A. True
B. False
300-206 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
The port isolation function can isolate the ports on the same switch.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Which statements are false?
A. The VLAN mapping function is usually configured on the edge node of a public network.
B. The VLAN mapping function can save VLAN resources on a public network.
C. VLAN mapping allows private networks on different VLANs to communicate with each other over the
ISP network.
D. VLAN mapping allows only the private networks on the same VLAN to communicate with each other.
300-206 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which statements about VLAN are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The VLAN improves network security. Users on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.
B. The VLAN improves network processing efficiency. Users on different VLANs are separated from each
other. Therefore, the size of a broadcast domain is reduced.
C. Layer 2 forwarding is only based on destination MAC addresses, and is irrelevant to VLAN
configuration.
D. The VLAN technology is a management method that controls the communication between terminals.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 44
Which statements about the VLAN on S series switches are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The VLAN IDs on the switch range from 1 to 4090.
B. The switch has a default VLAN.
C. The priority value in the VLAN tag can be changed on the switch.
D. A VLAN tag contains one byte.
300-206 pdf 
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 37
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources

210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have
replaced?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service portfolio management
D. Service catalogue management
210-260 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a
set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
A. The service level management
B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all
services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.

300-135 dumps

How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last
resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast
group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as
well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct
regarding multicast 300-135 dumps addressing?
( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a
multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that
indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last
24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that
indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 59
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration
changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest
solution to resolve the issue.

R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly
connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
– (Topic 18)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network

addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which one of the following statements BEST describes the function of compressed
mode?
A. Transmission mode in WCDMA technology.
B. Allows time for measurement of another frequency or system.
C. Prevention of traffic congestion.
D. Compression in order to enable transmission rates up to 2Mbps.
Answer: B
QUESTION 62
How should the downlink load be measured?
A. By measuring traffic (throughput [kbit/s]) in the downlink direction.
B. By analysing user profiles in the downlink direction.
C. By collecting average RX level of UEs from NMS.
D. By monitoring NodeB TX power.
300-135 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 63
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for GSM 1800 and
WCDMA, what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the
systems, if the distance from the BTS is 1500 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for
WCDMA.)
A. 7.4 dB.
B. 13.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 1.3 dB.
Answer: D
QUESTION 64
The purpose of the interference margin is to indicate:
A. how much the power is reduced per connection at the base station due to network
load.
B. the allowed number of subscribers in the network.
C. how much interference can be received from neighbouring base stations.
D. how much more power is needed per connection at the base station due to network
load.

300-135 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Harmonic distortion can be a problem in the case of co-siting GSM1800 and
WCDMA2100. In which way does the harmonic distortion cause interference?
A. GSM UL -> WCDMA DL.
B. WCDMA UL -> GSM DL.
C. GSM DL -> WCDMA UL.
D. WCDMA DL -> GSM UL.
Answer: C
QUESTION 66
How does speed affect power rise?
A. Higher speeds have higher power rise.
B. Higher speeds have lower power rise.
C. There is no affect.
D. Nokia implementation is not affected.
300-135 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Which parameter is used as an input to ISHO decision algorithm?
A. MS Power.
B. RxQual.
C. BTS Power.
D. RxLev.
Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Which is the correct range for URA?
A. 0 – 15.
B. 1 – 65535.
C. 0 – 7.
D. 1 – 1023.
300-135 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Which of the following items should be optimised to improve packet services throughput

A. Soft handover overhead
B. Cell specific scrambling codes
C. CPICH Ec/No & CPICH RSCP
D. PrxNoise
Answer: C
QUESTION 70
Which one of the antenna down-tilting mechanisms is preferred?
A. A combination of electrical and mechanical tilting.
B. Antenna pole tilting.
C. Electrical tilting.
D. Mechanical tilting.
300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 71
In an admission control procedure, what is MOST likely thing to happen if in uplink the
PrxNoise is over-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having interference problems.
B. There is a risk of increasing call failures.
C. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done
D. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
Answer: B

QUESTION 72
The UE link powers are changed in case:
A. Power is reduced if only one UE – NodeB link reliably indicates so
B. Power is increased if only one UE – NodeB link reliably indicate so
C. Powers are increased/decreased in case indicated by the UE
D. Power is reduced if only one UE – NodeB links indicate so
300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Which parameters are used as an input in the decision to hand over to another frequency
(IFHO decision algorithm)?
A. CPICH Ec/No and UE power.
B. BTS link power and CPICH RSCP.
C. CPICH Ec/No and CPICH RSCP.

D. BTS link power and UE power.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 182

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QUESTION 20
Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX
uplink failure?

A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the
Cisco UCS 6140XP?
A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation.
B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces.
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues.
D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points.
E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3548
B. Cisco UCS 6248UP
C. Cisco UCS 2208XP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco UCS 6296UP
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 23
What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center?
(Choose two.)
A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.
B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.
C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.
D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.
E. Stop using redundant power supplies.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
What technology is necessary to support vPC+?
A. MPLS
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vCenter
E. RPVST
F. MST
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down?
A. BPDU
B. weight
C. interface priority
D. object tracking
E. local preference
F. cost
642-998 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5548
C. Cisco Nexus 5596
D. Cisco Nexus 5020
E. Cisco Nexus 3016
F. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 28
What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure?
A. LACP
B. OTV
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. FabricPath
642-998 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP

G. MPLS
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 30
Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa
transactions.
Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP
addressing?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Clustered
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for
administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33
Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access
layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose
two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4004
C. Cisco Nexus 3064
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco Nexus 2248T
642-998 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 35
Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the
network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1010
B. VSM
C. VEM
D. host vPC
E. MPIO
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or
hypervisor? (Choose two.)
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX
D. NIV
E. host vPC
F. NIC teaming
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 37
Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch
ASIC?
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX
D. NIV
E. host vPC
F. NIC teaming
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E

F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 39
Which Cisco technology would you specify to provide your client’s data center with context- aware identity
validation and Layer 2 port authentication?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco NAC Profiler
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Anti-X
E. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the confidentiality of
server data beginning at the ingress switch port?
A. Host vPC+
B. Linksec
C. MACsec
D. LACP
E. IPsec
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory,
assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating
systems
D. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 42
What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B- Series
blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack- mountable
server over a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server?

A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction – Practical Exam
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Q&As: 112

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Exam A
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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Jun 10, 2017
Q&As: 82
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QUESTION 26
A system administrator has been assigned the task of moving the physical BlackBerry Enterprise Servers into a virtual machine environment. Which virtual machine software is recommended for use with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005
B. VMware ESX Server 2.5.2
C. Microsoft Virtual PC 2007
D. VMware GSX Server 3.2.1
E. VMware ESX Server 3i
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Name: Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series Immersive Solutions
Updated: Jun 11, 2017
Q&As: 112
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QUESTION 56
.Where can a system administrator verify that the PIM sync is enabled for the Address Book? (Choose one.)
A. Select User > Click Settings > Click Wireless Synchronization > Set to False
B. Select User > Click Edit Properties > Click Wireless Synchronization > Set to Yes
C. Select Accounts > Click Edit Synchronization > Click PIM Sync > Click Address Book > Set to True
D. Select User > Click Edit Properties > Click PIM Sync > Click Address Book > Select Synchronization enabled > Set to True
E. Select Accounts > Click Edit Properties > Click Wireless Synchronization > Click Address Book > Set to Yes
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Jun 07, 2017
Q&As: 61
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QUESTION 7
Scenario : Consider a slow performing WebLogic cluster wherein the response time exceeds the SLA requirement of 12 milliseconds. The application consists of a web component implementing JSPs and a business component consisting of a stateless session EJB and an entity EJB accessing a back-end database. To begin with bottleneck analysis, the following simple check can be adopted to check network traffic:
A. Perform a netstat output analysis to make sure traffic does not exceed the network bandwidth.
B. Perform an iostat output analysis to gather network statistics.
C. Perform a vmstat output analysis to gather network usage stats.
D. Perform a snoop of the http headers and body to get an idea of the traffic.

Correct Answer: A

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