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Exam Code: 1Z0-061
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
Q&As: 75

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QUESTION 9
Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?
A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B. Finding the number of characters in an expression
C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D. Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output
1Z0-061 exam Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit and examine the description of SALES and PROMOTIONS tables.
1Z0-061 dumps

You want to delete rows from the sales table, where the PROMO_NAME column in the promotions table
has either blowout sale of everyday low prices as values.
Which three delete statements are valid?

1Z0-061 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three 1Z0-061 dumpsSQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1, 890.55?
1Z0-061 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
1Z0-061 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You want to display 5 percent of the employees with the highest salaries in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which query will generate the required result?

1Z0-061 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
In the customers table, the CUST_CITY column contains the value ‘Paris’ for the CUST_FIRST_NAME
‘Abigail’.
Evaluate the following query:

1Z0-061 dumps

What would be the outcome?
A. Abigail PA
B. Abigail Pa
C. Abigail IS
D. An error message
1Z0-061  pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
View the Exhibit and evaluate the structure and data in the CUST_STATUS table.
1Z0-061 dumps

You issue the following SQL statement:
1Z0-061 dumps

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the AMT_SPENT column contains a null value.
B. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT is less than CREDIT_LIMIT.
C. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT equals CREDIT_LIMIT, or
AMT_SPENT is null.
D. It produces an error because the TO_NUMBER function must be used to convert the result of the
NULLIF function before it can be used by the NVL2 function.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The NULLIF Function
The NULLIF function tests two terms for equality. If they are equal the function returns a null, else it returns
the first of the two terms tested. The NULLIF function takes two mandatory parameters of any data type.
The syntax is NULLIF(ifunequal, comparison_term), where the parameters ifunequal and comparison_term
are compared. If they are identical, then NULL is returned. If they differ, the ifunequal parameter is
returned.
QUESTION 15
Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
1Z0-061 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1. One-to-one a) Teacher to students
2. One-to-many b) Employees to Manager
3. Many-to-one c) Person to SSN
4. Many-to-many d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
You execute the following commands:
1Z0-061 dumps

For which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?
A. None, because no input required
B. Both the substitution variables ‘hiredate’ and ‘mgr_id\
C. Only ‘hiredate’
D. Only ‘mgr_id’
1Z0-061  exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the customers table.
1Z0-061 dumps

Using the customers table, you need to generate a report that shows the average credit limit for customers
in Washington and NEW YORK.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?

1Z0-061 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the employees 1Z0-061 dumps table:
1Z0-061 dumps

You want to display all the employee names and their corresponding manager names.
Evaluate the following query:

1Z0-061 dumps

Which join option can be used in the blank in the above query to get the required output?
A. INNER JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN
C. LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Evaluate the following query:
1Z0-061 dumps

What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an ‘s at the end of each PROMO_NAME in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal “{‘s start date was \} * for each row in the output.
1Z0-061 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
So, how are words that contain single quotation marks dealt with? There are essentially two mechanisms
available. The most popular of these is to add an additional single quotation mark next to each naturally
occurring single quotation mark in the character string Oracle offers a neat way to deal with this type of
character literal in the form of the alternative quote (q) operator. Notice that the problem is that Oracle
chose the single quote characters as the special pair of symbols that enclose or wrap any other character
literal. These character- enclosing symbols could have been anything other than single quotation marks.
Bearing this in mind, consider the alternative quote (q) operator. The q operator enables you to choose
from a set of possible pairs of wrapping symbols for character literals as alternatives to the single quote
symbols. The options are any single-byte or multibyte character or the four brackets: (round brackets),
{curly braces}, [squarebrackets], or <angle brackets>. Using the q operator, the character delimiter can
effectively be changed from a single quotation mark to any other character
The syntax of the alternative quote operator is as follows:
q’delimiter’character literal which may include the single quotes delimiter’ where delimiter can be any
character or bracket.
Alternative Quote (q) Operator
Specify your own quotation mark delimiter.
Select any delimiter.
Increase readability and usability.
SELECT department_name || q'[ Department’s Manager Id: ]’ || manager_id
AS “Department and Manager”
1Z0-061 vce FROM departments;
Alternative Quote (q) Operator
Many SQL statements use character literals in expressions or conditions. If the literal itself contains a
single quotation mark, you can use the quote (q) operator and select your own quotation mark delimiter.
You can choose any convenient delimiter, single-byte or multi byte, or any of the following character pairs:
[ ], { }, ( ), or < >.
In the example shown, the string contains a single quotation mark, which is normally interpreted as a
delimiter of a character string. By using the q operator, however, brackets [] are used as the quotation
mark delimiters. The string between the brackets delimiters is interpreted as a literal character string

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Q&As: 47

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11.John works as an Office Assistant for HappyTech Inc. He is assigned with the task of creating
invitation cards for his colleagues. There are about 200 employees in the company. What should he
do to ease the creation of cards?
A. Create individual invitation cards.
B. Create a theme.C. Create a Quick Style.
D. Create a template.
70-473 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
A template is a tool that is used to create a standard layout and the look and feel across multiple
pages. A user creates a template when he wants to apply the same layout to multiple pages in a
document. When he makes a change in the template, all the pages associated with it are affected
and the corresponding change is reflected in all the pages.
Answer: B is incorrect. A theme is used to create a professional and well-designed document. It is a
set of formatting choices such as a set of theme colors, theme fonts, and theme effects. When a
theme is applied to a document, the following are customize
D. hyperlink colors, body and heading styles, lists, table border colors, and background colors.
Answer: A is incorrect. Creating individual invitation cards will be extremely time consuming.
Answer: C is incorrect. Quick Style is a set of stored formats that are applied all at once anywhere in
the document. Rather than choosing different types of formats every time and applying them, a user
can create a Quick Style and apply it at other places in the same document or in other documents.
12.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. All computers in the company have Microsoft
Office 2007 installed. You have created a presentation in PowerPoint 2007. You open a slide. You
need to insert a shape in the slide. Choose and reorder the 70-473 dumps steps to accomplish the task.
Explanation: Take the following steps to insert shapes to a slid E.
1.Click on the Insert tab and select the Shapes option.
2.Click the drop-down list of the Shapes option and select a shape.
3.Drag the pointer to draw the shape. The selected shape will be appeared on the slide.
13.Jasmine creates a presentation. She assigns a digital signature on the presentation. After some
time, the signature becomes invalid. Which of the following is the cause of the issue?
A. She has changed the presentation.
B. She has removed the digital signature.
C. She has assigned a hyperlink.
D. She has applied a slide transition.
70-473 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
In Microsoft PowerPoint2007, a digital signature becomes invalid if the creator of a presentation
makes any changes to the presentation after assigning the digital signature.
14.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. All computers in the company have Microsoft
Office 2007 installed. You have created a document in Word 2007. The document is divided into
fifteen sections. You need to print only the fourth section and the tenth section of the document. You
open the Print dialog box. Which of the following instructions will you enter in the Pages box to
accomplish the task?
A. s4 & s10
B. s4-10
C. s4,10
D. s4,s10
70-473 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
Type s4,s10 in the Pages box to accomplish the task.
NotE. p denotes the page number, and s denotes the section number. A user can also print a range
of pages within a section. For example, to print pages 20 through 25 in section 5, type p20s5-p25s5 in
the Pages box of the Print dialog box. To print an entire section, type s[section number]. For
example, to print section 5, type s5 in the Pages box of the Print dialog box. Answer: A, B, and C are
incorrect. These are incorrect instructions.
15.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. All 70-473 exam computers in the company have Microsoft
Office 2007 installed. You need to insert a clip art into a Word 2007 document. Choose and reorder
the steps that you will take to accomplish the task?
Explanation: Take the following steps to insert a clip art in a document:
1.Open the document and place the cursor where the clip art is to be inserted.
2.Click on the Insert tab, and then click the “Clip Art” button.
3.The Clip Art task pane will be displayed on the right side of the window. Enter a keyword in the
“Search for” box, and then click the Go button.
4.In the results list, click the thumbnail of the image to be inserted.
16.Sam works in an office and he is assigned with the task of preparing a document. He inserts a picture in it. He makes some formatting changes to the picture. Now he wants to change the current picture to a different picture by preserving the formatting and size of the current picture. Mark the option that he should choose to accomplish the task.
Explanation: The Change Picture option is used to change the selected picture to a different picture
by preserving the formatting and size of the current picture.
17.You review a document and you want to add some suggestions to a part of the document. What
will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Insert a comment.
B. Insert a caption.
C. Insert a footer.
D. Enable Track Changes.
Answer: A
70-473 dumps Explanation:
Comment is a text that reviewers may add to suggest some changes to a part of the document. It
helps the creator of the document to know what other person(s) think of the document. Answer: D
is incorrect. The Track Changes option is used to view all the changes that are done by the
reviewer(s). It helps the creator of the document to view the changes like insertions, deletions, and
formatting. Answer: C is incorrect. Footer is an area in a document where a user can put vital
information such as page number, date of creation of document, time of creation of document,
filename, and other information. It always appears on the bottom of each page. Answer: B is
incorrect. Caption is a title for an image. It is written below the image to help a reader build a story
around the image. Caption is a statement that provides brief explanation of the image.
18.State whether the following statement is true or false. “Quick Print is used to send a document
directly to the default printer. It is the quickest and one step solution for printing a document without
making any changes.”
A. False B.
True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement given above is TRU
E. Quick Print is used to send a document directly to the default printer. It is the quickest and one step solution for printing a document without making any changes.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.

300-135 dumps

How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last
resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast
group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as
well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct
regarding multicast 300-135 dumps addressing?
( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a
multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that
indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last
24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that
indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 59
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration
changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest
solution to resolve the issue.

R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly
connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
– (Topic 18)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network

addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which one of the following statements BEST describes the function of compressed
mode?
A. Transmission mode in WCDMA technology.
B. Allows time for measurement of another frequency or system.
C. Prevention of traffic congestion.
D. Compression in order to enable transmission rates up to 2Mbps.
Answer: B
QUESTION 62
How should the downlink load be measured?
A. By measuring traffic (throughput [kbit/s]) in the downlink direction.
B. By analysing user profiles in the downlink direction.
C. By collecting average RX level of UEs from NMS.
D. By monitoring NodeB TX power.
300-135 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 63
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for GSM 1800 and
WCDMA, what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the
systems, if the distance from the BTS is 1500 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for
WCDMA.)
A. 7.4 dB.
B. 13.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 1.3 dB.
Answer: D
QUESTION 64
The purpose of the interference margin is to indicate:
A. how much the power is reduced per connection at the base station due to network
load.
B. the allowed number of subscribers in the network.
C. how much interference can be received from neighbouring base stations.
D. how much more power is needed per connection at the base station due to network
load.

300-135 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Harmonic distortion can be a problem in the case of co-siting GSM1800 and
WCDMA2100. In which way does the harmonic distortion cause interference?
A. GSM UL -> WCDMA DL.
B. WCDMA UL -> GSM DL.
C. GSM DL -> WCDMA UL.
D. WCDMA DL -> GSM UL.
Answer: C
QUESTION 66
How does speed affect power rise?
A. Higher speeds have higher power rise.
B. Higher speeds have lower power rise.
C. There is no affect.
D. Nokia implementation is not affected.
300-135 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Which parameter is used as an input to ISHO decision algorithm?
A. MS Power.
B. RxQual.
C. BTS Power.
D. RxLev.
Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Which is the correct range for URA?
A. 0 – 15.
B. 1 – 65535.
C. 0 – 7.
D. 1 – 1023.
300-135 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Which of the following items should be optimised to improve packet services throughput

A. Soft handover overhead
B. Cell specific scrambling codes
C. CPICH Ec/No & CPICH RSCP
D. PrxNoise
Answer: C
QUESTION 70
Which one of the antenna down-tilting mechanisms is preferred?
A. A combination of electrical and mechanical tilting.
B. Antenna pole tilting.
C. Electrical tilting.
D. Mechanical tilting.
300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 71
In an admission control procedure, what is MOST likely thing to happen if in uplink the
PrxNoise is over-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having interference problems.
B. There is a risk of increasing call failures.
C. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done
D. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
Answer: B

QUESTION 72
The UE link powers are changed in case:
A. Power is reduced if only one UE – NodeB link reliably indicates so
B. Power is increased if only one UE – NodeB link reliably indicate so
C. Powers are increased/decreased in case indicated by the UE
D. Power is reduced if only one UE – NodeB links indicate so
300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Which parameters are used as an input in the decision to hand over to another frequency
(IFHO decision algorithm)?
A. CPICH Ec/No and UE power.
B. BTS link power and CPICH RSCP.
C. CPICH Ec/No and CPICH RSCP.

D. BTS link power and UE power.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 182

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QUESTION 20
Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX
uplink failure?

A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the
Cisco UCS 6140XP?
A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation.
B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces.
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues.
D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points.
E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3548
B. Cisco UCS 6248UP
C. Cisco UCS 2208XP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco UCS 6296UP
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 23
What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center?
(Choose two.)
A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.
B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.
C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.
D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.
E. Stop using redundant power supplies.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
What technology is necessary to support vPC+?
A. MPLS
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vCenter
E. RPVST
F. MST
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down?
A. BPDU
B. weight
C. interface priority
D. object tracking
E. local preference
F. cost
642-998 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5548
C. Cisco Nexus 5596
D. Cisco Nexus 5020
E. Cisco Nexus 3016
F. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 28
What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure?
A. LACP
B. OTV
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. FabricPath
642-998 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP

G. MPLS
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 30
Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa
transactions.
Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP
addressing?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Clustered
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for
administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33
Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access
layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose
two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4004
C. Cisco Nexus 3064
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco Nexus 2248T
642-998 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 35
Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the
network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1010
B. VSM
C. VEM
D. host vPC
E. MPIO
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or
hypervisor? (Choose two.)
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX
D. NIV
E. host vPC
F. NIC teaming
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 37
Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch
ASIC?
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX
D. NIV
E. host vPC
F. NIC teaming
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E

F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 39
Which Cisco technology would you specify to provide your client’s data center with context- aware identity
validation and Layer 2 port authentication?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco NAC Profiler
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Anti-X
E. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the confidentiality of
server data beginning at the ingress switch port?
A. Host vPC+
B. Linksec
C. MACsec
D. LACP
E. IPsec
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory,
assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating
systems
D. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 42
What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B- Series
blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack- mountable
server over a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server?

A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: A

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Updated: Aug 06, 2017
Q&As: 164

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QUESTION NO: 1
In order to develop a global competency model for global leaders at a high tech company, a HR
Manager decides to study the connotation of specific attributes across the various office locations.
Which of the following types of culture would be the LFAST valuable to evaluate in order to
develop a valid and reliable model?
A. Local culture
B. Professional culture
C. National culture
D. Corporate culture
070-461 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following ways does a U.S. company practices regarding industrial relations differ
from the approach of most nations?
A. Automatic representation
B. Government mandate approach
C. Positive approach
D. Employer free speech
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
An U.S. base Engineering Manager has been identified for a short-term six-month assignment to
recruit and build a team in England. Which of the following training programs is the MOST critical
to ensure success on the job?
A. On-the-job training
B. Multi-cultural team building
C. Language
D. Cross-cultural training
070-461 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
According to Gregersen and Black, which of the following type of expatriate is the most likely to
work through problems by constantly weighing the pros and cons of basing decision s on localized
values vs. the corporation’s standardized procedures and processes?
A. Dual citizen
B. Expatriate who “goes native”
C. Homebound expatriate
D. Free agent
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A corporation has identified an initiative to recruit and train global leaders over the next 5 year in
order to become a truly transnational company. In order to meet this goal, the firm has identified
and developed 30 international assignments amongst its 10 office locations. Which of the following
candidates would LEAST match these positions?
A. A 25-year old human resources representative working in South Korea who just started at the
company
B. A 40-year old finance manager working in Africa who has been with the company for 8 years
C. A 40-year old manufacturing manager working in Thailand who has been with the company for
5 years
D. A 55-year old engineering manager working in the U.S. who has been with company for 10
years and has gone on 3 international assignments
070-461 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following represents motivator to a culture that values asvription?
A. Defined processes and procedures
B. Diplomacy
C. Challenge
D. Network
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following factors is NOT a significant, variable in how an individual may adjust to a
new cross-cultural environment?
A. Extent of previous experience on international assignments
B. Differences between the cultures
C. Length of time international assignment
D. Family situation
070-461 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following factors is NOT likely an issue a human resources professional would help a
family to work through to determine the appropriateness of an international assignment for the
family at that time?
A. Is adventure and discovering new things characteristic of the family?
B. Is the family stable and relationships currently harmonious?
C. Is there a history of drug abuse in the family?
D. Are the children open to moving to the host country?
Answer: C
Explanation:

Question No : 9 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button).

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query for a report. The query must meet the following requirements:
NOT use object delimiters.
Return the most recent orders first.
Use the first initial of the table as an alias.
Return the most recent order date for each customer.
Retrieve the last name of the person who placed the order.
Return the order date in a column named MostRecentOrderDate that appears as

the last column in the report.
The solution must support the ANSI SQL-99 standard.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 exam Answer:

070-461 dumps

Question No : 10 CORRECT TEXT You have an XML schema collection named Sales.InvoiceSchema. You need to declare a
variable of the XML type named XML1. The solution must ensure that XML1 is validated by
using Sales.InvoiceSchema. Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.

 

Question No : 11 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that returns a list of products from Sales.ProductCatalog. The
solution must meet the following requirements:
UnitPrice must be returned in descending order.
The query must use two-part names to reference the table.
The query must use the RANK function to calculate the results.
The query must return the ranking of rows in a column named PriceRank

✑ ✑
The list must display the columns in the order that they are defined in the table.
PriceRank must appear last.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 dumps Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No : 12 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑
You have an application named Appl. You have a parameter named @Count that uses the
int data type. App1 is configured to pass @Count to a stored procedure. You need to
create a stored procedure named usp_Customers for Appl. Usp_Customers must meet the
following requirements:
NOT use object delimiters.
Minimize sorting and counting.
Return only the last name of each customer in alphabetical order.

Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No : 13  You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Decimal
070-461 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

Question No : 14  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee.
Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables.
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you a create a self-reference foreign key
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeelD
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 vce Answer: I

 

Question No : 15  You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named BlogEntry that
has the following columns:

070-461 dumps
You need to append the “This is in a draft stage” string to the Summary column of the
recent 10 entries based on the values in EntryDateTime.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. UPDATE TOP(10) BlogEntry
SET Summary.WRITE(N’ This is in a draft stage’, NULL, 0)
B. UPDATE BlogEntry
SET Summary = CAST(N’ This is in a draft stage’ as nvarchar(max))
WHERE Id IN(SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC)
C. UPDATE BlogEntry
SET Summary.WRITE(N’ This is in a draft stage’, NULL, 0) FROM (
SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC) AS s
WHERE BlogEntry.Id = s.ID
D. UPDATE BlogEntry
SET Summary.WRITE(N’ This is in a draft stage’, 0, 0)
WHERE Id IN(SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC)
Answer: C
Question No : 16 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application.
You create a stored procedure named DeleteJobCandidate.
You need to ensure that if DeleteJobCandidate encounters an error, the execution of the
stored procedure reports the error number.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DECLARE @ErrorVar INT;
DECLARE @RowCountVar INT;
EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
SELECT @ErrorVar = @@ERROR, @RowCountVar = @@ROWCOUNT;
IF (@ErrorVar <> 0)
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(@@ErrorVar AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@RowCountVar AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
B. DECLARE @ErrorVar INT; DECLARE @RowCountVar INT;
EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
SELECT @ErrorVar = ERROR_STATE(), @RowCountVar = @@ROWCOUNT;
IF (@ErrorVar <> 0)
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(ERRORSTATE() AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@RowCountVar AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
C. EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
IF (ERROR_STATE() != 0)
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(@@ERROR AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@ROWCOUNT AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
D. EXEC DeleteJobCandidate
PRINT N’Error = ‘ + CAST(@@ERROR AS NVARCHAR(8)) +
N’, Rows Deleted = ‘ + CAST(@@ROWCOUNT AS NVARCHAR(8));
GO
070-461 dumps Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2090-424
Exam Name: InfoSphere DataStage v11.3
Updated: Jul 06, 2017
Q&As: 64

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QUESTION: 16
How do Siemens Unified Communications solutions facilitate easy growth and expansion
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Exam Name: Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction – Practical Exam
Updated: Jun 19, 2017
Q&As: 112

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What tool does the service manual recommend you use to separate plastics and lift components of PowerBook and iBook computers?
A. Nylon probe tool
B. Jeweler `screwdriver
C. Flatblade screwdriver
D. Precision needle nose pliers

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
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QUESTION 26
A system administrator has been assigned the task of moving the physical BlackBerry Enterprise Servers into a virtual machine environment. Which virtual machine software is recommended for use with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005
B. VMware ESX Server 2.5.2
C. Microsoft Virtual PC 2007
D. VMware GSX Server 3.2.1
E. VMware ESX Server 3i
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Name: Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series Immersive Solutions
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Q&As: 112
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QUESTION 56
.Where can a system administrator verify that the PIM sync is enabled for the Address Book? (Choose one.)
A. Select User > Click Settings > Click Wireless Synchronization > Set to False
B. Select User > Click Edit Properties > Click Wireless Synchronization > Set to Yes
C. Select Accounts > Click Edit Synchronization > Click PIM Sync > Click Address Book > Set to True
D. Select User > Click Edit Properties > Click PIM Sync > Click Address Book > Select Synchronization enabled > Set to True
E. Select Accounts > Click Edit Properties > Click Wireless Synchronization > Click Address Book > Set to Yes
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Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
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QUESTION 7
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A. Perform a netstat output analysis to make sure traffic does not exceed the network bandwidth.
B. Perform an iostat output analysis to gather network statistics.
C. Perform a vmstat output analysis to gather network usage stats.
D. Perform a snoop of the http headers and body to get an idea of the traffic.

Correct Answer: A

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